Do Gravitating Bodies Warp the Fabric of Space?

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That's a nice analogy, but personally I'd be careful with words like "the fabric of space".

It is true, that light is bent in the direction of gravitational masses. In fact, if the mass is large enough (or more strictly speaking, the mass density) light can be bent so strongly that its orbit is bent into a circle or even more. In that case you have black hole.

Usually, however, the effects are visible near stars. In that case, an object can lie behind a star, like in the lower picture you linked. However, for an observer at the tip of the arrow, the light seems to have originated from somewhere like the far upper corner of the sheet (just draw a tangent line to the last part of the light orbit). This effect has been measured for the sun, as one of the first experimental tests of GR (actually, this effect also exists in Newtonian gravity, but its a factor off which GR gets right) and since it has been seen in action numerous times in so called gravitational lensing, mostly with large clusters and gas clouds.
 
Thanks but my question is still unanswered. Is space bent towards a gravitating mass? Or does no one know? What did Einstein think?

Thanks,

Jake
 
I suggest you take a look at the gravitomagnetic field equations, which are a first-order approximation to GR but good enough to give you an idea of what is going on. The effect is similar to the effect due to a magnetic field caused by a moving charge.

"Is space bent towards a mass?" is, I think, a strange question to ask. To properly examine the curvature, you have to take time into account as well. The result of the curvature is that straight lines in space-time appear to be curved toward masses in space.
 
espen180 said:
I suggest you take a look at the gravitomagnetic field equations, which are a first-order approximation to GR but good enough to give you an idea of what is going on. The effect is similar to the effect due to a magnetic field caused by a moving charge.

"Is space bent towards a mass?" is, I think, a strange question to ask. To properly examine the curvature, you have to take time into account as well. The result of the curvature is that straight lines in space-time appear to be curved toward masses in space.

I appreciate your post. It sounds like I don't need to understand gravitomagnetic field equations. "...straight lines in space-time appear to be curved toward masses..." So the answer to my question seems to be a simple "yes." Right?

Thanks,

Jake
 
jaketodd said:
I appreciate your post. It sounds like I don't need to understand gravitomagnetic field equations. "...straight lines in space-time appear to be curved toward masses..." So the answer to my question seems to be a simple "yes." Right?

Thanks,

Jake

"...straight lines in space-time appear to be curved toward masses...when isolated in space". You have to take time into account. The fact that space in curved toward something makes little sense to me. The only way to get it right, as far as I know, is to include all four dimensions of space-time.
 
Ok, gravitating bodies warp spacetime toward them. Is that correct then? What do you mean by "when isolated in space"?

Thanks,

Jake
 
well I think 'isolated in space' is means that body of certain mass is alone to be observe or in other words it is alone. You can imagine that it is easy to observe the effect when it is only one who shows some deformation in light's straight line path.
prakash0
 
What I meant is that geodesics, which are the straightest possible paths in space-time, sppear curved in space (i.e. not straight lines in space).

What does it mean that something warps spacetime towards it?
 
  • #10
jaketodd said:
Is it true that gravitating bodies actually warp the fabric of space towards them like in this picture? http://www.astronomynotes.com/evolutn/grwarp.gif

Like in http://www.wbabin.net/ntham/todd3.pdf "paper" you just "published" based on what you are learning here.
 
  • #11
starthaus said:
Like in http://www.wbabin.net/ntham/todd3.pdf "paper" you just "published" based on what you are learning here.

Is learning here and applying that knowledge to my work against any rules?
 
  • #12
If you think about space time as a baloon where the stretchiness of the balloon at a spot on its surface is determined by its mass/energy density, then the surface of the balloon will be dimpled. The rate of time and the spatial dimensions are all determined by the radius of the dimple. Motion across the surface of the baloon means that you will be moving through dimples in space time as well as causing a dimple to propagate over the surface.
 
  • #13
TCS said:
If you think about space time as a baloon where the stretchiness of the balloon at a spot on its surface is determined by its mass/energy density, then the surface of the balloon will be dimpled. The rate of time and the spatial dimensions are all determined by the radius of the dimple. Motion across the surface of the baloon means that you will be moving through dimples in space time as well as causing a dimple to propagate over the surface.

Thank your for that idea. It sparked some of my own.

I guess it works as a 2D analogy of a closed universe, but it doesn't help jaketodd, since inhabitants on the baloon surface cannot experimentally determine the direction of the curvature (positive if on the outside, negative if on the inside, but this is impossible for the 2-dimensional inhabitants to determine).

Nevertheless, the baloon analogy is exellent for demonstrating that asking in what direction spacetime curves is nonsense. We can see that on the balloon, spacetime is embedded in 4 dimensional space (2 spatial dimensions, 1 temporal dimension and a fourth dimension into which spacetime also curves). By analogy we can see that we would need a 5-dimensional space in which to embed our 4-dimensional spacetime for us to be able to ask in which direction spacetime curves, and even then it would be a question of definiton.
 
  • #14
espen180 said:
Thank your for that idea. It sparked some of my own.

I guess it works as a 2D analogy of a closed universe, but it doesn't help jaketodd, since inhabitants on the baloon surface cannot experimentally determine the direction of the curvature (positive if on the outside, negative if on the inside, but this is impossible for the 2-dimensional inhabitants to determine).

Nevertheless, the baloon analogy is exellent for demonstrating that asking in what direction spacetime curves is nonsense. We can see that on the balloon, spacetime is embedded in 4 dimensional space (2 spatial dimensions, 1 temporal dimension and a fourth dimension into which spacetime also curves). By analogy we can see that we would need a 5-dimensional space in which to embed our 4-dimensional spacetime for us to be able to ask in which direction spacetime curves, and even then it would be a question of definiton.

I like the balloon analogy because it allows me to visulaize masss/energy density as the thickness of the rubber and also that we are part of space time, were part of the fabric that holds the universe together.
 
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  • #15
espen180 said:
We can see that on the balloon, spacetime is embedded in 4 dimensional space (2 spatial dimensions, 1 temporal dimension and a fourth dimension into which spacetime also curves). By analogy we can see that we would need a 5-dimensional space in which to embed our 4-dimensional spacetime for us to be able to ask in which direction spacetime curves, and even then it would be a question of definiton.

You don't necessarily need a 5th dimension. Imagine, instead of a dimple, spacetime stretched toward a massive object without curving into a 5th dimension. However, the question remains: What force or tendency makes objects go into regions of stretched spacetime?
 
  • #16
jaketodd said:
You don't necessarily need a 5th dimension. Imagine, instead of a dimple, spacetime stretched toward a massive object without curving into a 5th dimension. However, the question remains: What force or tendency makes objects go into regions of stretched spacetime?

Objects are like wave packets in space time, where the the medium of oscillation is the energy density. Greater energy density changes the elasticity and causes time to slow down. When the localized energy in a wave packet enters a high energy density region, the rate of energy transmission through space slows down. Accordingly, the wave energy is trapped in the slowed down area of space and since the location of the object is based upon the location of the energetic portion of its wave function, the object goes into the higher energy region of space time.
 
  • #18
  • #19
http://www.physics.ucla.edu/demoweb..._and_general_relativity/curved_spacetime.html
jaketodd said:
but it doesn't explain why something starting from rest, relative to a massive object, starts falling toward the massive object.

Yes it does:

http://www.physics.ucla.edu/demoweb/demomanual/modern_physics/principal_of_equivalence_and_general_relativity/curved_time.gif

The "falling object" here is initially at rest in space : it advances initially only along the (proper)time dimension. But It starts moving in space towards the massive object ("more stretched spacetime"), just by advancing locally straight in spacetime.
 
  • #20
If the "falling object" mirrored the path of the proper time in the graphic, then it would stay at the top of the house.
 
  • #21
jaketodd said:
If the "falling object" mirrored the path of the proper time in the graphic, then it would stay at the top of the house.
It wouldn't be a free falling object then, because it's path through spacetime(worldline) wouldn't be a straight line anymore. In order to keep the object at the top of the house, you have to bend it's worldline by applying an upwards force on the object.
 
  • #22
In the graphic, why doesn't the object have to mirror the axis of proper time? What causes it to deviate from that path?
 
  • #23
jaketodd said:
If the "falling object" mirrored the path of the proper time in the graphic, then it would stay at the top of the house.



In the four dimensional model of space time, you are never stationary. In uncurved space, you are moving at a constant velocity in the direction of time. When space curves, some of your velocity is in the other three dimensions.

However, I think that five dimensional models provide a more intuitive picture of space time.
 
  • #24
TCS said:
In the four dimensional model of space time, you are never stationary. In uncurved space, you are moving at a constant velocity in the direction of time. When space curves, some of your velocity is in the other three dimensions.

However, I think that five dimensional models provide a more intuitive picture of space time.

So you're saying inherent temporal velocity is transferred to spatial velocity in the environment of warped spacetime? There still needs to be something that chooses which spatial direction to go in. And if you bring a 5th dimension into it, there needs to be a force that pulls things into a dimple of spacetime.
 
  • #25
jaketodd said:
In the graphic, why doesn't the object have to mirror the axis of proper time?
Because there is no real force acting on it (it is in free fall), it advances on a straight line trough spacetime.

jaketodd said:
What causes it to deviate from that path?
In GR you don't need a cause to advance straight in spacetime - it the default behavior of all objects. You need a cause (force) to deviate from that straight line.

jaketodd said:
There still needs to be something that chooses which spatial direction to go in.
By moving locally straight you always tend towards the area of increasing distances (more stretched spacetime). This is dictated by geometry as shown in the pictures.

jaketodd said:
And if you bring a 5th dimension into it, there needs to be a force that pulls things into a dimple of spacetime.
No, moving locally straight is enough.
 
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  • #26
A.T. said:
Because there is no real force acting on it (it is in free fall), it advances on a straight line trough spacetime.

Since the graphic defines the proper time as curved, then an object with no forces on it would mirror that curved path. It would be following the curvature of time in spacetime. The movement of the object as presented in the graphic would be like taking a shortcut straight across a dimple in the time part of spacetime.
 
  • #27
jaketodd said:
Since the graphic defines the proper time as curved, then an object with no forces on it would mirror that curved path.
No. The graphic shows how GR models gravitation, and in GR force free objects advance locally straight in spacetime. Maybe you are confusing GR with a different (your own?) theory.
 
  • #28
A.T. said:
No. The graphic shows how GR models gravitation...

A.T. said:
...gravitation...

A.T. said:
gravitation

Finally, a force that makes things move in spacetime and can lead to the straight line in the graphic.
 
  • #29
A.T. said:
Because there is no real force acting on it (it is in free fall), it advances on a straight line trough spacetime.

In GR you don't need a cause to advance straight in spacetime - it the default behavior of all objects. You need a cause (force) to deviate from that straight line.

As you can see, before you where claiming no force on the object.
 
  • #30
A.T. said:
gravitation
jaketodd said:
Finally, a force...
Where did I say "force" ? "Gravitation" refers to the general phenomena, not a specific model.
jaketodd said:
...that makes things move in spacetime
No. In GR you don't need a force to make things advance in spacetime. All objects advance in spacetime by default.
jaketodd said:
and can lead to the straight line in the graphic.
No. In GR you don't need a force to advance locally straight in spacetime. It is the default behavior of force free objects.
jaketodd said:
As you can see, before you where claiming no force on the object.
Yes, in GR within inertial frames, free falling objects are force free.
 
  • #31
Also, the graphic shows the object taking a path shorter than the curved, proper time dimension. This is incorrect because an object would take longer than the proper time since its motion causes time dilation. So its path should be longer than the proper time curve between the two end points of the object's path.
 
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  • #32
A.T. said:
Where did I say "force" ? "Gravitation" refers to the general phenomena, not a specific model.

No. In GR you don't need a force to make things advance in spacetime. All objects advance in spacetime by default.

No. In GR you don't need a force to advance locally straight in spacetime. It is the default behavior of force free objects.

Yes, in GR within inertial frames, free falling objects are force free.

So objects fall according to what? The curvature of spacetime? What pulls them into a dimple? I guess you could say objects move by default to less dense areas of spacetime. But that brings up the question of what is the difference between tendency and force?
 
  • #33
jaketodd said:
Also, the graphic shows the object taking a path shorter than the curved, proper time dimension.
No idea what you compare here, A dimension doesn't "take a path of a finite length",
jaketodd said:
This is incorrect because an object would take longer than the proper time since its motion causes time dilation. So its path should be longer than the proper time curve between the two end points of the object's path.
Time dilation in this diagram means the object advances less along the proper time dimension. This might help you to understand the diagram better:
http://www.adamtoons.de/physics/relativity.swf
Set: intial speed : 0, gravity : 1.0 to simulate a free fall from rest towards a mass somewhere to the right.

jaketodd said:
So objects fall according to what? The curvature of spacetime?
Yes

jaketodd said:
What pulls them into a dimple?
You could just as well ask "What bends a cricle?". It is simply a geometrical consequence of the mathematical model (geodesics on curved manifolds).

jaketodd said:
I guess you could say objects move by default to less dense areas of spacetime.
You can say a lot of things. But the things GR says also fit the observation quite well.
 
  • #34
I'm done debating this. We're going in circles or at least this thread as a whole is. I wish one of the people who have been recognized by the forum to be an authority would set the record straight.
 
  • #35
espen180 said:
I guess it works as a 2D analogy of a closed universe, but it doesn't help jaketodd, since inhabitants on the baloon surface cannot experimentally determine the direction of the curvature (positive if on the outside, negative if on the inside, but this is impossible for the 2-dimensional inhabitants to determine).
Actually, the curvature of the balloon surface is positive regardless of which "side" of the surface you are talking about. In fact, the concept of "inside" or "outside" the surface is only valid in the 3D embedding space and is meaningless within the 2D surface itself.

The curvature is an intrinsic property defined entirely within the surface itself. Experimenters within the surface can determine the positive curvature of a balloon by measuring the sum of the interior angles of a triangle and determining that it is greater than 180º. A 2D surface with negative curvature would be saddle-shaped in 3D, and again the "side" would have no bearing on the curvature. The sum of the interior angles of a triangle would be less than 180º.
 
  • #36
TCS said:
If you think about space time as a baloon where the stretchiness of the balloon at a spot on its surface is determined by its mass/energy density, then the surface of the balloon will be dimpled. The rate of time and the spatial dimensions are all determined by the radius of the dimple. Motion across the surface of the baloon means that you will be moving through dimples in space time as well as causing a dimple to propagate over the surface.

This is a great analogy. I knew about the radius of the baloon represented time and the surface a 3D space, but when you consider that massive objects are actually living in the past since their clocks are slowed relative to empty space, they will of course dimple the surface partially into the past. Great visual!
 
  • #37
A.T. said:
http://www.physics.ucla.edu/demoweb/demomanual/modern_physics/principal_of_equivalence_and_general_relativity/curved_time.gif
I understand this is from a book by L Epstein. It clearly was never professionally reviewed as the concept of curved proper time is sheer nonsense.

The reason a clock attached to a ceiling runs faster than a clock on the floor is that the clock on the floor has a greater proper acceleration than the clock near the ceiling. Curvature of spacetime simply causes objects to accelerate with respect to each other without any need for proper acceleration.
 
  • #38
Passionflower said:
http://www.physics.ucla.edu/demoweb/demomanual/modern_physics/principal_of_equivalence_and_general_relativity/curved_time.gif

I understand this is from a book by L Epstein. It clearly was never professionally reviewed

Rickard Jonsson has derived the math of Epstein embeddings:
http://www.relativitet.se/Webtheses/lic.pdf (Chapter 6, page 53)

Passionflower said:
as the concept of curved proper time is sheer nonsense.
A single dimension cannot be intrinsically curved alone, that's why "curved time" is in quotes. But intrinsic curvature is not even necessary to have a "gravitational pull". The "gravitational pull" is related to the 1st derivates of the metric, while tidal forces are related to 2nd derivates (curvature). And the spacetime in the picture in fact doesn't have any intrinsic curvature. I agree that "curved time" is not a good title for the illustration.

Passionflower said:
The reason a clock attached to a ceiling runs faster than a clock on the floor is that the clock on the floor has a greater proper acceleration than the clock near the ceiling.

So you think, greater proper acceleration means slower clock rate? Some counter-examples:

- A clock resting in the Earths center experiences less proper acceleration but runs slower than a clock resting on the surface.

- You can have a two clocks resting (relative to each other) in an uniform gravitational field experiencing the same proper acceleration, but running at different rates.

Passionflower said:
Curvature of spacetime simply causes objects to accelerate with respect to each other without any need for proper acceleration.
Yes.
 
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  • #39
A.T. said:
- A clock resting in the Earths center experiences less proper acceleration but runs slower than a clock resting on the surface.

- You can have a two clocks resting (relative to each other) in an uniform gravitational field experiencing the same proper acceleration, but running at different rates.
A clock in the center of the Earth accelerates away from all directions because all the mass surrounding it tries to attract it. Proper acceleration does not necessarily result in relative movement.

A uniform gravitational field is a red herring, as the question often becomes how uniform is a uniform gravitational field really.
 
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  • #40
Passionflower said:
A clock in the center of the Earth accelerates away from all directions because all the mass surrounding it tries to attract it.
That is just a very complicated way to say that the proper acceleration of a clock resting in the center is zero. This is less than the proper acceleration of a clock resting on the surface. Yet the center clock runs slower than the surface clock.

This is shows that your idea, that greater proper acceleration causes a slower clock rate, is false. Here your statement that I was objecting to:
Passionflower said:
The reason a clock attached to a ceiling runs faster than a clock on the floor is that the clock on the floor has a greater proper acceleration than the clock near the ceiling.

Do yon now understand, that it isn't the difference in proper acceleration that determines gravitational time dilation between two clocks?
 
  • #41
An object can be both stationary and accelerating.
 
  • #42
Not proper acceleration, that can only have one value, the one measured by an accelerometer. An accelerometer at the center of the Earth reads 0, and accelerometer at the surface of the Earth reads 9.8 m/s² upwards. A.T.'s counterexample is correct, gravitational time dilation is not due to differences in proper acceleration the way you suggest.

The uniform field is also a good counter example. Suppose you have an ideal gravitational field where the proper acceleration of a stationary particle is everywhere constant. In such a field a light pulse going "up" would be gravitationally red-shifted and therefore there would be gravitational time dilation despite the fact that the proper acceleration is constant.
 
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  • #43
Passionflower said:
An object can be both stationary and accelerating.
I don't quite see how this addresses my counter example to your claim that greater proper acceleration causes a slower clock rate.
 
  • #44
A.T. said:
That is just a very complicated way to say that the proper acceleration of a clock resting in the center is zero. This is less than the proper acceleration of a clock resting on the surface. Yet the center clock runs slower than the surface clock.
Start with the Schwarzschild solution in the weak field approximation:

(cd\tau)^2=(1-\frac{2\Phi}{c^2})(cdt)^2+(1-\frac{2\Phi}{c^2})^{-1}(dr)^2+...

For the case dr=d\theta=d\phi=0 you get the well known relationship:

d\tau=\sqrt{1-\frac{2\Phi}{c^2}}dt

Writing the above for two different gravitational potentials \Phi_1 and \Phi_2 you obtain the well-known time dilation relationship:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=\sqrt{\frac{1-\frac{2\Phi_1}{c^2}}{1-\frac{2\Phi_2}{c^2}}}

At the Earth surface :

\Phi_1=-\frac{GM}{R}

At the Earth center:

\Phi_2=-3/2\frac{GM}{R}

Now, due to the fact that \frac{\Phi}{c^2}<<1 you can obtain the approximation:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=1-\frac{\Phi_1-\Phi_2}{c^2}=1-\frac{GM}{2Rc^2}<1

So, f_1>f_2 where f_1 is the clock frequency on the Earth crust and f_2 is the frequency of the clock at the center of the Earth.

In addition, the time dilation depends on the difference in the gravitational field \Phi_1-\Phi_2.

Generalization:

At a distance r<R from the center of the sphere, inside the sphere, the gravitational potential is:

\Phi_2(r)=-\frac{GM}{R}(\frac{3}{2}-\frac{r^2}{2R^2})

The above gives:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=1-\frac{\Phi_1-\Phi_2}{c^2}=1-\frac{GM}{2Rc^2}(1-\frac{r^2}{R^2})<1

For r=0 (clock2 at the center of the Earth) you recover the results from above.

For r=R you get the expected:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=1
 
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  • #45
starthaus said:
Start with the Schwarzschild solution in the weak field approximation:

(cd\tau)^2=(1-2\frac{\Phi}{c^2})(cdt)^2+(1-2\frac{\Phi}{c^2})^{-1}(dr)^2+...

For the case dr=d\theta=d\phi=0 you get the well known relationship:

d\tau=\sqrt{1-2\frac{\Phi}{c^2}}dt

Writing the above for two different gravitational potentials \Phi_1 and \Phi_2 you obtain the well-known time dilation relationship:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=\sqrt{\frac{1-2\frac{\Phi_1}{c^2}}{1-2\frac{\Phi_2}{c^2}}}

At the Earth surface :

\Phi_1=-\frac{GM}{R}

At the Earth center:

\Phi_1=-3/2\frac{GM}{R}

Now, due to the fact that \frac{\Phi}{c^2}<<1 you can obtain the approximation:

\frac{d\tau_1}{d\tau_2}=1-\frac{\Phi_1-\Phi_2}{c^2}=1-1/2\frac{GM}{rc^2}<1

So, f_1>f_2

In addition, the time dilation depends on the gradient of the gravitational field \Phi_1-\Phi_2, i.e., it depends on acceleration.



Shouldn't phi 1 be zero. I think that you are missing a little r in your calculation.
 
  • #46
TCS said:
Shouldn't phi 1 be zero. I think that you are missing a little r in your calculation.

No, the calculation is correct.
 
  • #48
TCS said:
This link shows that gravitational time dilation is proportion to small g, which should be zero at the center of the earth.

https://www.physicsforums.com/library.php?do=view_item&itemid=166

The formulas on the link you cited are valid for outside the Earth. The potentials inside the Earth are different.You need to be careful with what expressions you plug in into your calculations. The calculations I showed are correct.
 
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  • #49
starthaus said:
The formulas on the link you cited are valid for outside the Earth. The potentials inside the Earth are different.You need to be careful with what expressions you plug in into your calculations. The calculations I showed are correct.


That does make more sense to me because I had thought that time the contraction was determined by the energy density and those equations seemd to contradict my belief.

Is the difference related to change in potential energy of the clock?
 
  • #50
TCS said:
Is the difference related to change in potential energy of the clock?
Yes. E.g. as a photon goes up it gains potential energy, loses kinetic energy, and therefore becomes redshifted. This indicates that time is slower lower in the potential well.
 
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