Simplified LaGrange Point Calculation

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The discussion centers on finding the gravitationally neutral point between the Earth and the Moon, specifically the L1 point, without considering centripetal forces or other gravitational influences. The user attempts to derive the relationship between the gravitational forces exerted by the Earth and the Moon using the formula for gravitational force. They express confusion over their derivation, particularly regarding the distances involved, mistakenly equating the distance from the Earth's center to the Lagrangian point with the Earth's radius. A response clarifies that the distance should be measured from the Earth's center to the Lagrangian point, which is closer to the Moon. The conversation highlights the importance of correctly understanding the distances in gravitational calculations.
seanhogge
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I am attempting for my own curiosity to find out at what point during a geodesic path from the Earth to the Moon one would reach a gravitationally neutral point.

This is essentially the L1, but without adjustments for centripetal force of a moving system, and ignoring all other gravitational bodies (i.e. the sun).

It's one of those back-of-envelope things that I've run out of envelope for. My stumbling block seems to be the math, but I figured this was a better place to ask for guidance since the subject may have something to do with it.

So basically, I set

Fearth = G (mme * mearth) / r2earth and Fmoon = G (mme * mmoon) / r2moon to be equal.

So when I remove G and move everything so that distances are on one side, and masses are on another, I get

sqrt( mearth / mmoon ) = rearth / rmoon.

This can't be right. It's supposed to be an inverse square. However, I cannot for the life of me find where this derivation goes wrong. I suspect there is something fundamental with my original concept, or I'm missing some very obvious mathematical issue in my complete ignorance. Which is caused by my never having taken anything higher than high school geometry/trig and no physics. Please feel free to correct me on any and all points, including my terminology and minutiae.

Thanks in advance!
 
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seanhogge said:
I am attempting for my own curiosity to find out at what point during a geodesic path from the Earth to the Moon one would reach a gravitationally neutral point.

This is essentially the L1, but without adjustments for centripetal force of a moving system, and ignoring all other gravitational bodies (i.e. the sun).

It's one of those back-of-envelope things that I've run out of envelope for. My stumbling block seems to be the math, but I figured this was a better place to ask for guidance since the subject may have something to do with it.

So basically, I set

Fearth = G (mme * mearth) / r2earth and Fmoon = G (mme * mmoon) / r2moon to be equal.

So when I remove G and move everything so that distances are on one side, and masses are on another, I get

sqrt( mearth / mmoon ) = rearth / rmoon.

This can't be right. It's supposed to be an inverse square. However, I cannot for the life of me find where this derivation goes wrong. I suspect there is something fundamental with my original concept, or I'm missing some very obvious mathematical issue in my complete ignorance. Which is caused by my never having taken anything higher than high school geometry/trig and no physics. Please feel free to correct me on any and all points, including my terminology and minutiae.

Thanks in advance!

Your derivation looks good to me. Perhaps you're confusing rearth with the Earth's radius? rearth is the distance from the Earth's center to the Lagrangian point. At the Lagrangian point the object will be closer to the moon than to the earth.
 
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