Simplifying Fourier Series for Rectified Sinusoidal Signals

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on simplifying Fourier Series for rectified sinusoidal signals, specifically addressing two problems involving the calculation of Fourier coefficients Dn. The first problem yields Dn = (2/(∏(1-4n^2))) for a rectified sin(t) wave with a period T = ∏. The second problem results in Dn = (1/(2∏n)). The user seeks clarification on the simplification process used in the first problem, particularly regarding the integration and application of Euler's identity.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier Series and Fourier coefficients
  • Familiarity with rectified sinusoidal signals
  • Knowledge of complex exponentials and Euler's identity
  • Proficiency in integration techniques, particularly in the context of periodic functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Fourier coefficients for different waveforms
  • Learn about the application of Euler's identity in signal processing
  • Explore integration techniques for periodic functions in signal analysis
  • Investigate the use of computational tools like Wolfram Alpha for solving Fourier Series problems
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in electrical engineering, signal processing, and applied mathematics who are working with Fourier Series and rectified sinusoidal signals.

rishmeister
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Two similar problems, but once I find out how to do the first one, I can figure out how to do the second. My signals book tells me the answers to the following "Dn"s are:

First problem: Dn = (1/∏) ∫ sin(t) * e^(-j2nt) dt = 2/(∏ (1-4n^2) )

if x(t) = rectified sin(t) wave, period T = ∏.

Second problem: Dn = ∫(t/2∏) * e^(-jn*ωnaught*t) = 1/(2∏n).

Homework Equations



Formula for Dn = (1/period) ∫x(t)*e^(-(j*n*ωnaught*t))

The Attempt at a Solution



See, when I pop the first one into Wolfram, I get
e^(-2*j*n*t) * (cos(t) + 2*j*n*sin(t))
/
∏(4n^2 - 1).

Since we integrate over 0 to ∏ in the first one, I understand Euler' identity is used to get the e^(-2*j*n*t) term to 1, and the cos(∏) goes away, so I'm left with 2jn / ∏(4n^2 - 1). How did they simplify that to get what I put up top as the answer?

First post so I'm a noob.
Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
whoops, double post... sorry... can't figure out how to delete the post...
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
6K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
10K