Simplifying the integral of dirac delta functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of Dirac delta functions, particularly in the context of a specific integral involving an exponential function and a cosine term. Participants express uncertainty about the properties and handling of delta functions in integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand how to evaluate an integral involving a Dirac delta function, expressing confusion about the properties of the delta function and its implications for integration. Other participants clarify the definition of the delta function and its effect on integrals, while also discussing the importance of integration limits in relation to the argument of the delta function.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the concepts, with some providing clarifications about the properties of the Dirac delta function and its integration. There is a productive exchange of ideas, but no explicit consensus has been reached regarding the implications of different limits of integration.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the necessity of including the point where the delta function is centered in the limits of integration. The original poster expresses a lack of confidence in their understanding of the material, which may affect their interpretation of the problem.

sleventh
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hello all,
i am unaware of how to handle a delta function. from what i read online the integral will be 1 from one point to another since at zero the "function" is infinite. overall though i don't think i know the material well enough to trust my answer. and help on how to take the integral of a dirac delta function would be much appreciated. the kind of problems I am dealing with are similar to
[tex]\int[/tex]e^(-x^2) [tex]\delta[/tex](x+1)[1-cos(5 (pi/2) x)] dx from -infinity to 0
for this i solved the delta function for when x+1=0 since that is the only time when the function will have a value. i then subbed -1 for all x's and took the integral, assuming the delta function became 1.
thank you very much for help
 
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hello sleventh! :smile:

(have a delta: δ :wink:)
sleventh said:
i then subbed -1 for all x's and took the integral, assuming the delta function became 1.

no, there's no integral in the result …

δ is defined by the property ∫ δ(x) f(x) dx = f(0) for any f.

Put F(x) = f(x-1).

Then ∫ δ(x+1) f(x) dx = ∫ δ(x) f(x-1) dx = ∫ δ(x) F(x) dx = F(0) = f(-1). :wink:

Do you see how the δ function gets rid of the integral? :smile:
 
hey tiny-tim. thank you very much. that clears up a lot. so if you were to be taking the integral of the above problem from limits 0-∞ (thanks for the copy and paste) would the problem have the same solution as -∞ -0 because you are still subbing in 0 to the f(x-1) adaptation of the function?
 
Hi sleventh! :smile:

Any limits have to strictly include the zero of what's inside the δ (which in this case is -1) …

so it can be ∫-∞ or ∫-∞0 or ∫-20,

but not ∫0 or even ∫-1 or ∫-∞-1 :wink:
 

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