Simplifying Trig Ratio Identities: Does This Answer Make Sense?

  • Thread starter Thread starter supernova1203
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around simplifying trigonometric ratio identities, specifically focusing on the expression involving the cosine function. Participants are examining whether certain manipulations lead to valid simplifications or conclusions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are exploring the simplification of the expression (1/cos(theta))(1/cos(theta)) and questioning the validity of cross-multiplying in this context. There are discussions about arriving at cos(theta)/cos(theta) and whether it equals 1, as well as the correct interpretation of multiplying fractions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing differing viewpoints on the simplification process. Some have offered clarifications regarding the correct mathematical operations to apply, while others are questioning the assumptions made about the expressions involved.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be some confusion regarding the application of trigonometric identities and the rules of multiplication and division in the context of these identities. Participants are encouraged to find relevant trigonometric identities to aid in understanding.

supernova1203
Messages
209
Reaction score
0
Trig ratios identities problems, in this case i am not asked to prove anything, just asked to simplify(Solve)

im left with

(1/costheta)(1/costheta)

At this point do we cross multiply?

we would end up with

costheta/costheta = 1

does this make sense? I encountered a similar problem earlier and it was somewhat like this where the solution was 1.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
are you saying that from

x = (1/cos(theta))(1/cos(theta))

you arrive at cos(theta)/cos(theta) = x = 1?

that would not be correct...

however the statement

cos(theta)/cos(theta) = 1 would certainly be correct
 
No, it isn't correct.

You do not cross multiply unless they are equal to each other. In this case, you should multiply normally. You started with (1/cosθ)(1/cosθ), correct?

So in that case (1/cosθ)(1/cosθ) = 1/cos2θ = sec2θ
 
Yes it doesn't add up

For example 1/cos(theta) x 1/cos (theta) is the same as saying 1/cos^2(theta) does this equal 1?

Find a trig identity that would explain it in different terms I think is your best bet.

Ok that was redundant whs^. :smile:
 
[tex]\frac{1}{a}\frac{1}{a}= \frac{1}{a^2}[/tex]
not 1.

If you were dividing, it would be
[tex]\frac{\frac{1}{a}}{\frac{1}{a}}= 1[/tex]
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
11K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
24
Views
4K