Skin Depth Confusion: Investigating Different Equations for Paul

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the confusion surrounding the equations for skin depth, specifically between two formulas: δ = tan⁻¹(tan δ) = σ/(ωε) and δ = 1/√(πfμσ). Paul presents a scenario with a frequency of 1 MHz and conductivity of 5.8 x 10⁷ S/m, leading to significantly different skin depth results: 1.57 m from the first equation and 66.09 μm from the second. Bob clarifies that the first equation is valid only for specific ranges of loss tangents, emphasizing the distinction between the angle δ in radians and the physical skin depth δ in length units.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of electromagnetic theory, particularly skin depth concepts.
  • Familiarity with the equations of conductivity and their applications.
  • Knowledge of frequency and its role in electromagnetic wave propagation.
  • Basic grasp of loss tangent and its implications in material properties.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the derivation and applications of the skin depth formula δ = 1/√(πfμσ).
  • Study the concept of loss tangent and its impact on electromagnetic wave behavior in materials.
  • Explore the relationship between frequency, conductivity, and skin depth in various materials.
  • Investigate the limitations and valid ranges of different skin depth equations in practical scenarios.
USEFUL FOR

Electrical engineers, physicists, and students studying electromagnetic theory who seek to deepen their understanding of skin depth and its equations in practical applications.

paul_harris77
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Dear all

I am slightly confused over the equations for skin depth. My university notes give me the equations:

\delta = tan-1 (tan\delta) = \frac{\sigma}{\omega \epsilon} (loss tangent)

where \delta is skin depth and \sigma is conductivity.

I am also given the equation:

\delta = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi f \mu \sigma}}

However, for the situation below, they both yield different skin depths.

f = 1MHz

w = 2\pi f

\sigma = 5.8 \times 10^{7} Sm-1

Using the first equation:

\delta = tan-1( \frac{5.8\times 10^{7}}{2\pi \times 1 \times 10^{6} \times 8.85 \times 10^{-12}} = 1.57m)

Using the second equation:

\delta = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi \times 1 \times 10^{6} \times 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 5.8 \times 10^{7}}} = 66.09\mu m

It seems like the first equation gives 1.57 for all large values of the loss tangent, whereas the second equation gives the correct result.

Is the first equation valid for a certain range of loss tangents only?

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Many thanks

Regards

Paul
 
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You are using two different definitions for δ.

The angle δ = tan-1(loss tangent) is in radians

The skin depth δ is in length (e.g., mm).

Bob S
 
Most likely this can only be answered by an "old timer". I am making measurements on an uA709 op amp (metal can). I would like to calculate the frequency rolloff curves (I can measure them). I assume the compensation is via the miller effect. To do the calculations I would need to know the gain of the transistors and the effective resistance seen at the compensation terminals, not including the values I put there. Anyone know those values?

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