arkajad said:
Of course I can. Take as an example
A=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\0&1\end{pmatrix}
Then \det(A)=1 therefore A\in SL(2,C).
We have
A A^\dagger =\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix}
and \mbox{Tr}( A A^\dagger )=3
With Q=I (the identity matrix) we have
\mbox{Tr}(AQA^\dagger)=3\neq 2=\mbox{Tr}(Q)
This means Tr is not SL(2,C)-invariant. It is SU(2) ( and even U(2) )-invariant.
Thank you very much, you made me laugh. Is this your understanding of the invariance of the trace operation? I ground my 12 years old kid for a week, if she reproduces your argument. Who said \mbox{Tr} ( A Q A^{ \dagger } ) must equal to \mbox{Tr} Q? And why should they be equal?
Look, I don’t know how many different ways I have explained this for you, here is another way. Consider the Matrix Q = x_{ \mu } \sigma^{ \mu }, square it by ordinary matrix multiplication and take (1/2) of its trace, you find
\frac{ 1 }{ 2 } \mbox{Tr} ( Q^{ 2 } ) = \frac{ 1 }{ 2 } Q_{ a c } Q_{ c a } = x_{ 0 }^{ 2 } + x_{ 1 }^{ 2 } + x_{ 2 }^{ 2 } + x_{ 3 }^{ 2 } .
This is the invariant metric of the Orthogonal group SO( 4 ). So, why didn’t we get the Invariant Lorentz metric? The reason is this: As a matrix, Q has nothing to do with the group SL( 2 , C ) and because we calculated the SO( 4 )-invariant trace, we got Euclidean metric.
To avoid this embarrassing situation, people often calculate \det | Q | in order to generate the Lorentz metric with correct signature. Even in this case, we get the correct signature because of the presence of the SL( 2 , C ) metric \epsilon in the definition of \det | Q |. To see the beauty of SL( 2 , C ) tensor calculas, let us repeat the calculation by treating Q as the mixed spinor-tensor Q_{ A \dot{ B } } = x_{ \mu } ( \sigma^{ \mu } )_{ A \dot{ B } } and evaluate the SL( 2 , C )-invariant trace
<br />
\mbox{Tr} ( Q^{ 2 } ) = Q^{ A \dot{ B } } Q_{ A \dot{ B } } = x_{ \mu } x_{ \nu } ( \sigma^{ \mu } )^{ A \dot{ B } } ( \sigma^{ \nu } )_{ A \dot{ B } } = 2 \left( x_{0}^{2} - x_{1}^{2} - x_{2}^{2} - x_{3}^{2}\right) .<br />
Here the Lorentz invariant metric with correct signature arises naturally because the invariant trace requires the presence of SL( 2 , C ) spinor metric \epsilon:
( \sigma^{ \mu } )^{ A \dot{ B } } ( \sigma^{ \nu } )_{ A \dot{ B } } = \epsilon^{ A C } \epsilon^{ \dot{ B } \dot{ D } } ( \sigma^{ \mu } )_{ C \dot{ D } } ( \sigma^{ \nu } )_{ A \dot{ B } } .<br />
Now, look the two calculations and recall my warning: Do not confuse Matrix Multiplication with Tensor Contraction. Get It?
Sam