SolsticeFire
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So I was reading Spivak's Calculus for fun and I found on the bottom of page 25, 4th edition:
Suppose that \sqrt{2} were rational; that is, suppose there were natural numbers p and q such that \frac{p^{2}}{q^{2}} = 2.
We can assume that p and q have no common divisor (since all common divisors could be divided out to begin with). Now we have
p^{2} = 2q^{2}.
This shows that p^{2} is even, and consequently p must be even; that is p = 2k for some natural number k. Then
p^{2} = 4k^{2}=2q^{2},
so 2k^{2} = q^{2}.
This shows that q^{2} is even, and consequently q is even. Thus both p and q are even, contradicting the fact that p and q have no common divisor. This contradiction completes the proof.
Am I missing something or is this proof not complete and sloppy?! Spivak didn't even consider the possibility that q is odd and p is even; in which case, we can write p as 2k and q as 2m+1 and THEN check the equivalency. In this case we find that two sides won't be equivalent when we substitute 2k and 2m+1 in the given equation and that would complete the proof.
Suppose that \sqrt{2} were rational; that is, suppose there were natural numbers p and q such that \frac{p^{2}}{q^{2}} = 2.
We can assume that p and q have no common divisor (since all common divisors could be divided out to begin with). Now we have
p^{2} = 2q^{2}.
This shows that p^{2} is even, and consequently p must be even; that is p = 2k for some natural number k. Then
p^{2} = 4k^{2}=2q^{2},
so 2k^{2} = q^{2}.
This shows that q^{2} is even, and consequently q is even. Thus both p and q are even, contradicting the fact that p and q have no common divisor. This contradiction completes the proof.
Am I missing something or is this proof not complete and sloppy?! Spivak didn't even consider the possibility that q is odd and p is even; in which case, we can write p as 2k and q as 2m+1 and THEN check the equivalency. In this case we find that two sides won't be equivalent when we substitute 2k and 2m+1 in the given equation and that would complete the proof.