Solution to diff. eqn as a ring

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Alphaboy2001
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Solution to diff. eqn as a ring(killing me - please look at my result!)

Homework Statement



I am presented with the following problem given the direction field

[tex]f(u,v) = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} -sin(u) & sin(v) \\ cos(u) & cos(v) \end{array} \right)[/tex]

as [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex]

show that

[tex](\{(u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^2|f(u,v) = 0\} = T_{1} \cup T_{2} )[/tex]


where

[tex]T_{1} = \{l \pi, m\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = \{m \pi, l\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution



Don't I treat [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] as a ring since any solution to the differential equation [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v) = 0[/tex] must lie on the Ring [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?

Thus I must show [tex]T_{1} + T_{2}[/tex] and [tex]T_{1} \cdo T_{2}[/tex] lies
[tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?

If yes very well.

[tex]T_{1} + T_{2} = (\frac{4(l+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{4(m+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]

and

[tex]T_{1} \cdot T_{2} = (\frac{(2 \cdot m+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{(2\cdot l+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]

and since [tex]l,m \in \mathbb{Z}[/tex] then 2(l+1) and 2(m+1) and m(2m+1) and l(2l+1) are in [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] is the Ring which defines in solution for [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex] which implies that in l,m on the Ring mentioned above will give a solution for the differential equation.

How is that??

Sincerely Yours

Alphaboy
 
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Hi Alphaboy! Thanks for the PM :smile:
Alphaboy2001 said:
I am presented with the following problem given the direction field

[tex]f(u,v) = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} -sin(u) & sin(v) \\ cos(u) & cos(v) \end{array} \right)[/tex]

as [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex]

show that

[tex](\{(u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^2|f(u,v) = 0\} = T_{1} \cup T_{2} )[/tex]


where

[tex]T_{1} = \{l \pi, m\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = \{m \pi, l\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]

I'm sorry, I'm not following this. :redface:

T1 and T2, according to your definitions, are the same.

And how can f(u,v) = 0? If the top line is 0, then the bottom line isn't.

And what is the differential equation?

And what is a direction field? :confused:
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi Alphaboy! Thanks for the PM :smile:


I'm sorry, I'm not following this. :redface:

T1 and T2, according to your definitions, are the same.

And how can f(u,v) = 0? If the top line is 0, then the bottom line isn't.

And what is the differential equation?

And what is a direction field? :confused:

Hi Tiny-tim,

you are one of the smartest guys here :D

Anyway if look at my teachers definition of T1 and T2 its their inclusion which gives f(u,v) = 0 for any integer l and m, if and only if l and m are in Z.

and what I am trying to do it to insert T1 + T2 and T1*T2 into f(u,v) and as mentioned if l and m are in Z, then I get f(u,v) = 0.

and it was "vectorfield" and (u', v') is the corresponding differential equation.

I hope this have cleared it up now :)

Sincerely
Alpha