Alphaboy2001
- 12
- 0
Solution to diff. eqn as a ring(killing me - please look at my result!)
I am presented with the following problem given the direction field
[tex]f(u,v) = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} -sin(u) & sin(v) \\ cos(u) & cos(v) \end{array} \right)[/tex]
as [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex]
show that
[tex](\{(u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^2|f(u,v) = 0\} = T_{1} \cup T_{2} )[/tex]
where
[tex]T_{1} = \{l \pi, m\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = \{m \pi, l\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
Don't I treat [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] as a ring since any solution to the differential equation [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v) = 0[/tex] must lie on the Ring [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?
Thus I must show [tex]T_{1} + T_{2}[/tex] and [tex]T_{1} \cdo T_{2}[/tex] lies
[tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?
If yes very well.
[tex]T_{1} + T_{2} = (\frac{4(l+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{4(m+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]T_{1} \cdot T_{2} = (\frac{(2 \cdot m+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{(2\cdot l+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]
and since [tex]l,m \in \mathbb{Z}[/tex] then 2(l+1) and 2(m+1) and m(2m+1) and l(2l+1) are in [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] is the Ring which defines in solution for [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex] which implies that in l,m on the Ring mentioned above will give a solution for the differential equation.
How is that??
Sincerely Yours
Alphaboy
Homework Statement
I am presented with the following problem given the direction field
[tex]f(u,v) = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} -sin(u) & sin(v) \\ cos(u) & cos(v) \end{array} \right)[/tex]
as [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex]
show that
[tex](\{(u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^2|f(u,v) = 0\} = T_{1} \cup T_{2} )[/tex]
where
[tex]T_{1} = \{l \pi, m\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = \{m \pi, l\pi + \frac{\pi}{2}|l,m \in \mathbb{Z}\}[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
Don't I treat [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] as a ring since any solution to the differential equation [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v) = 0[/tex] must lie on the Ring [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?
Thus I must show [tex]T_{1} + T_{2}[/tex] and [tex]T_{1} \cdo T_{2}[/tex] lies
[tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex]?
If yes very well.
[tex]T_{1} + T_{2} = (\frac{4(l+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{4(m+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]T_{1} \cdot T_{2} = (\frac{(2 \cdot m+1)\cdot \pi}{2}, \frac{(2\cdot l+1)\cdot \pi}{2})[/tex]
and since [tex]l,m \in \mathbb{Z}[/tex] then 2(l+1) and 2(m+1) and m(2m+1) and l(2l+1) are in [tex]T_{1} \cup T_{2}[/tex] is the Ring which defines in solution for [tex]\left( \begin{array}{c}u^{'} & v^{'} \end{array} \right) = f(u,v)[/tex] which implies that in l,m on the Ring mentioned above will give a solution for the differential equation.
How is that??
Sincerely Yours
Alphaboy
