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Solve ODE reducible to exact equation

  1. Nov 29, 2013 #1
    The problem statement, all variables and given/known data.

    Find all the solutions of the equation:
    ##\dfrac{\sin(y)}{x}dx+(\dfrac{y}{x}\cos(y)-\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y})dy=0## knowing that the equation admits an integrating factor ##u## of the form ##u(x,y)=h(\dfrac{x}{y})##

    The attempt at a solution.

    If I call ##M(x,y)=\dfrac{\sin(y)}{x}## and ##N(x,y)=\dfrac{y}{x}\cos(y)-\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y}## then, in order to be an exact differential equation, ##M## and ##N## must satisfy ##M_y=N_x##, but ##M_y=\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}≠-\dfrac{y\cos(y)}{x^2}=N_x##, so this is not an exact differential equation.

    As the exercise suggests, I've tried to propose an integrating factor ##u## of the form ##u(x,y)=h(\dfrac{x}{y})##, but, since up to know I've only solved equations where the integrating factor depended just on one of the variables, I got stuck in the middle of the problem.

    So, ##u## must satisfy:

    ##(uM)dx+(uN)dy=0##

    Then, ##(uM)_y=(uN)_x \iff u_yM+uM_y=u_xN+uN_x \iff xh_yM+hM_y=\dfrac{1}{y}h_xN+hN_x##.

    Calculating all these partial derivatives gives:

    ##xh_y\dfrac{\sin(y)}{x}+h\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}=\dfrac{1}{y}h_x(\dfrac{ycos(y)}{x}-\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y})+h(-\dfrac{ycos(y)}{x^2})##

    At this point I got stuck and I don't know what and how to integrate in order to find ##u(x,y)##
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 29, 2013 #2

    vela

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    You didn't differentiate correctly. You should have, for example,
    \begin{align*}
    (uM)_y &= \frac{\partial}{\partial y} \left[ h\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) \frac{\sin y}{x}\right] \\
    &= h'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)\left(-\frac{x}{y^2}\right) \frac{\sin y}{x} + h\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) \frac{\cos y}{x} \\
    &= -h'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) \frac{\sin y}{y^2} + h\left(\frac{x}{y}\right) \frac{\cos y}{x}
    \end{align*}
     
  4. Nov 29, 2013 #3
    Thanks, I'll correct it and see if I can get a nicer expression.
     
  5. Nov 29, 2013 #4
    After vela's correction, I got:

    ##(uM)_y=-h'(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y^2})+h(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x})##.
    ##(uN)_x=h'(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}-\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y^2})-h(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{y\cos(y)}{x^2})##.
    So, ##(uM)_y=(uN)_x## if and only if

    ##-h'(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y^2}+h(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}=h'(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}-\dfrac{\sin(y)}{y^2})-h(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{y\cos(y)}{x^2})## if and only if

    ##h(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}=h'(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x})-h(\dfrac{x}{y})\dfrac{y\cos(y)}{x^2})##.

    Then

    ##h(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x}+\dfrac{y\cos(y)}{x^2})=h'(\dfrac{x}{y})(\dfrac{\cos(y)}{x})##

    ##1+\dfrac{y}{x}=\dfrac{h'\dfrac{x}{y}}{h\dfrac{x}{y}}##. If I make the substitution ##z=\dfrac{x}{y}##, then the equation reduces to:

    ##1+\dfrac{1}{z}=\dfrac{h'(z)}{h(z)}##.

    So

    ##\int (1+\dfrac{1}{z})dz=\int \dfrac{dh}{h} \iff z+ln(z)+k=ln(h)##.

    Then, ##h=ze^z=\dfrac{x}{y}e^{\dfrac{x}{y}}##. Now I have to go back to the original equation, which it will be reduced to an exact equation by this integrating factor.

    Is this correct?
     
  6. Nov 29, 2013 #5

    vela

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    Yes, it is!
     
  7. Nov 29, 2013 #6
    Thanks very much!
     
  8. Nov 29, 2013 #7

    lurflurf

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    Good work.
    Let me offer a suggestion.
    I would change variable z=x/y first to make things less messy
    $$\frac{\sin(y)}{x}\mathrm{d}x+\left( \frac{y}{x}\cos(y)-\frac{\sin(y)}{y}\right)\mathrm{d}y=0\\
    \text{becomes}\\
    \sin(y)\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{z}+\frac{1}{z}\cos(y)\mathrm{d}y=0$$
     
  9. Nov 29, 2013 #8
    Good remark.
     
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