Solving 2nd Order ODE: y''+(1/x)y'=0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving the second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) given by y'' + (1/x)y' = 0. Participants are exploring methods to find the general solution to this equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to manipulate the ODE into a solvable form and expresses uncertainty about a mistake made during integration. Other participants question the validity of the integration method used and suggest multiplying by an integrating factor to facilitate the solution process.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing hints and guidance on how to approach the integration of the ODE. There is a focus on clarifying the steps necessary to arrive at a solution, although no consensus has been reached on the correctness of the original poster's approach.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on understanding the proper form for integrating ODEs, with specific reference to the conditions under which integration can be applied. The discussion also highlights the need for clarity on the role of integrating factors in solving the equation.

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Homework Statement



find the general solution to the ODE:
y''+(1/x)y'=0

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I put this in the following form: y''=-(1/x)y'
integrated both sides: y'=-ln(x)y +C
I think i made a stupid mistake but i can't figure out what it is.
Any help would be appreciated. Thank you.
 
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You can't integrate like that. You can only integrate when you have an ODE of the form y' = f(x), where anything y isn't on the right side.

There is a general solution to ODEs of the form y'' + a(x)y' = 0, and it's probably in your textbook. Hint: multiply both sides by [tex]e^{\int^x_{x_0} a(t)dt}[/tex], and contract by the product rule for differentiation.
 
why do i have to multiply both sides by that integral?
 
Because it gives you something you can integrate. You're trying to find y, right? Well, if you multiply both sides by the given function, and note that the derivative of [tex]e^{\int^x_{x_0} a(t)dt}[/tex] is [tex]a(x)e^{\int^x_{x_0} a(t)dt}[/tex], you can use the product rule to write the equation in the form (X y')' = 0, where X is something you need to find yourself (I've given you all the clues you need). You can then conclude that X y' = c, for some constant c, by integrating both sides. You now have an equation that is easily solvable if you know the very basics of differential equations.
 
ok, so i did this and my working out is:
so the 'a' is 1/x, and integrating this gives lnx so e^ln(x)=x so multiplying the ODE vy x gives:
xY''+Y'=0
so (xY')'=0
integrating both sides gives:
xY'=C (where C is a constant)
integrating again gives:
Y=Cln(x)+D (where D is a constant)
Is this correct?
 

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