Solving Basis Functions Homework w/ Constants A_n & B_n

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding constants \(A_n\) and \(B_n\) such that two infinite series involving basis functions \(\phi_n\) are equal, despite \(A_n\) not being equal to \(B_n\) for all \(n\). The context is set within the interval \([0, \pi]\) and involves trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the convergence of series and the implications of rearranging terms. There is a focus on defining \(A_n\) and \(B_n\) in a way that maintains equality of the series while differing in their individual terms.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered potential definitions for \(A_n\) and \(B_n\) and are exploring the conditions under which the series can be considered equal. There is an ongoing examination of the convergence properties required for the series to hold true.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the functions \(\Phi_n\) yield cyclic results only for rational multiples of \(\pi\), which adds complexity to the problem. There is also a mention of the need for absolute convergence for the rearrangement of series to be valid.

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Homework Statement



Given x in the interval [0, [tex]\pi[/tex]], let [tex]\phi[/tex][tex]_{0}[/tex](x) = 1, and [tex]\Phi[/tex][tex]_{n}[/tex] (x) = sin ((2n-1)x).

Show that there are constants:
{A[tex]_{n}[/tex]}[tex]^{n=0}_{\infty}[/tex] and {B[tex]_{n}[/tex]}[tex]^{n=0}_{\infty}[/tex]

such that:

[tex]\sum[/tex][tex]^{n=0}_{\infty}[/tex]A[tex]_{n}[/tex][tex]\phi[/tex][tex]_{n}[/tex]=[tex]\sum[/tex][tex]^{n=0}_{\infty}[/tex]B[tex]_{n}[/tex][tex]\phi[/tex][tex]_{n}[/tex]

But A[tex]_{n}[/tex] [tex]\neq[/tex] B[tex]_{n}[/tex] [tex]\forall[/tex]n


All the n's should be subscripts. None are powers.

Relevant equations


I really don't know where to start. Any push in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.
 
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note [tex]\Phi[/tex]n won't give you cyclic results unless your x is a rational multiple of pi, making this a bit tricky.

Luckily -1<=[tex]\Phi[/tex]n <=1.

So I would define try something like this.

Define An = an , where an *[tex]\Phi[/tex]n = (-1)^n/n^2
This would mean the An series converges.

Then i would define Bn so it reorders the terms of your An series. So it would converge and be equal.
 
Thanks for the reply!

I thought to do something like that, and I can understand that both series would converge, but how would they be equal?
 
They would only be equal as you took the limit to infinity, which is all your proof requires. Since the An series is absolutely convergent all of it's rearrangements will be equal. Note, you need to make An absolutely convergent, or this won't be true.
 

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