Solving for y-intercept on a wavefunction graph

  • Thread starter Thread starter Linus Pauling
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Graph Wavefunction
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the y-intercept of a wavefunction graph, specifically focusing on the normalization of the wavefunction and the calculation of probabilities related to the particle's position. The subject area includes quantum mechanics and wavefunctions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the normalization condition of the wavefunction, questioning the value of the constant c and its implications on the integral of the wavefunction squared. There are attempts to define the shape of the wavefunction and its squared form, as well as inquiries about calculating probabilities based on the area under the curve.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different interpretations of the wavefunction and its properties. Some guidance has been provided regarding the integration process and the necessity of squaring the wavefunction, but there is still uncertainty about the specific equations and calculations involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants express confusion regarding the equations that describe the wavefunction and the process of calculating probabilities. There are mentions of piecewise functions and the need to visualize the squared wavefunction, indicating potential gaps in understanding the underlying concepts.

Linus Pauling
Messages
187
Reaction score
0
1.
40.EX16.jpg


What is c?




2. 1 = integral of wavefunction2 from -infinity to +infinity



3. From the graph, the area above the x-axis is 2/3 the total area. I solved the following integral (int) from -1 to +1:

2/3 = int(c2dx)

Obtaining 2/3 = 2c2

So c = sqrt(1/3) = 0.58 nm-1/2
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Linus Pauling said:
1.
40.EX16.jpg


What is c?

2. 1 = integral of wavefunction2 from -infinity to +infinity
3. From the graph, the area above the x-axis is 2/3 the total area. I solved the following integral (int) from -1 to +1:

2/3 = int(c2dx)Obtaining 2/3 = 2c2

So c = sqrt(1/3) = 0.58 nm-1/2

Remember, your are integrating the wave function squared, so you cannot just look at THAT graph. You must realize that the graph to look at is that graph with every value squared. What happens to negative values and fractions?
 
Last edited:
I'm lost. What equation describes the shape of the wavefunction given in the picture? I Understand that I will square that function, then integrate between the boundaries setting the integral equal to one, then solving for c...
 
Linus Pauling said:
I'm lost. What equation describes the shape of the wavefunction given in the picture? I Understand that I will square that function, then integrate between the boundaries setting the integral equal to one, then solving for c...

I'm not sure what function. I am just saying from the graph given, graph the square of the function (which you can just do visually by squaring all the \psi values). Then you can pull off the integration.
 
Also, you can just define the piecewise function. So -inf < x < -2 , psi = 0 and so on. Then just square each piece.
 
Ok, so the shape of the squared wavefunction is basically two smaller rectangles with height 0.25c^2 and base of length 1, and a bigger one with base of 2 and height c^2. Total area = the integral = 1 = (5/2)c^2, so c = 0.632

Correct?
 
I am also asked (and am confused about) computing the probability of finding thte particle between -1 and 1nm.

Do I simply take the integral/area of the "bigger rectangle" that goes from -1 to 1nm, whose are is 2c^2, then divide by the total area 2.5c^2, i.e. 80% probability?
 
Linus Pauling said:
Ok, so the shape of the squared wavefunction is basically two smaller rectangles with height 0.25c^2 and base of length 1, and a bigger one with base of 2 and height c^2. Total area = the integral = 1 = (5/2)c^2, so c = 0.632

Correct?

Yup.
 
Linus Pauling said:
I am also asked (and am confused about) computing the probability of finding thte particle between -1 and 1nm.

Do I simply take the integral/area of the "bigger rectangle" that goes from -1 to 1nm, whose are is 2c^2, then divide by the total area 2.5c^2, i.e. 80% probability?

Well now you know what c is and the probability of finding the particle between -1 and 1 is the integral of psi squared from -1 to 1.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
938
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
Replies
25
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
896
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K