Solving Integration Problem: I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx

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The integral I = ∫_0^∞ e^{-ax} sin(bx) dx can be solved using integration by parts, which leads to a recursive relationship between the integral and similar integrals involving cosine. By applying integration by parts multiple times, the integral can be expressed in terms of itself, allowing for simplification. The final result is derived as I = b / (a² + b²), showing the relationship between the parameters a and b. Substitutions are necessary to facilitate the integration by parts process, even if they seem complex at first. This method effectively resolves the integration problem while highlighting the interplay between sine and cosine functions.
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Can someone give me a hint on how to solve

I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx

?
 
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Use integration by parts, and set the upper limit as t. Then let t--> infinity (i.e. improper integral)
 
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But integration by parts will only give me a similar integral to solve...?
 
you have to use it multiple times, so that you can solve the integral
 
You can write the trig function as a complex exponential:

<br /> \sin(bx) = \frac{1}{2i}\left[e^{ibx}-e^{-ibx}\right]\,.<br />

Then you will have two similar integrals to solve, which are straight forward.
 
jprO: Of course. That will do it.

courtrigad: Partial integration multiple times will give me a loop between e^{-ax} \sin{bx} and e^{-ax} \cos{bx}.
 
Yes, it does:
I = \int_0^\infty e^{-ax} \sin{bx} dx
Let u= e^{-ax}, dv= sin(bx)dx
Then du= -ae^{-ax}dx, v= -\frac{1}{b}cos(bx)
so the integral becomes
I= -\frac{1}{b}e^{-ax}cos(bx)\left|_0^\inftjy- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx
Since e-ax goes to 0 as x goes to infinity, while cos(bx) is bounded, that is
I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a}{b}\int_0^\inty}e^{-ax}cos(bx)dx
Now let u= e^{-ax}, dv= cos(bx). Again we have du= -a e^{-ax}dx, v= \frac{1}{b}sin(bx)[/tex]<br /> The integral is now:<br /> I= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx<br /> But remember that I= \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx<br /> so that equation says<br /> \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}- \frac{a^2}{b^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx[/tex]&lt;br /&gt; so &lt;br /&gt; \left(1+frac{a^2}{b^2}\right)\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{1}{b}&lt;br /&gt; \int_0^\infty e^{-ax}sin(bx)dx= \frac{b}{a^2+b^2}&lt;br /&gt; (Modulo any silly litte errors from working too fast!)
 
I don't understand why you do the substitutions. Can't you just solve the integral by parts without doing the substitutions?
 
do you agree that integration by parts if of the form:

\int udv = uv-\int vdu? You need substitutions to do integration by parts.
 
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  • #10
I see what you mean. I'm just not used to do it your way. Actually, I'm doing it your way. I just don't think about what I'm really doing. ;)
 

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