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berkeman said:What is that thing on the left? And what do they mean by "displacement"? Is that a voltage?
EDIT -- And what do the distances "L" at the bottom of the figure have to do with the problem? Are there transmission line considerations?
berkeman said:What is that thing on the left? And what do they mean by "displacement"? Is that a voltage?
EDIT -- And what do the distances "L" at the bottom of the figure have to do with the problem? Are there transmission line considerations?
rude man said:The 'thing on the left ' is presumably part of a wall. A massless bar or board runs from x = 0 to x = 3L. If the wall ends at x = -d, then the pivot point is at x = 0, the springs exert a force at x = L , the dashpot about x = 2L and the displacement output y(t) occurs at x = 3L.
The problem deals with torques about the pivot point. x(t) is the input displacement at the top of the top spring. y(t) is the output displacement at x = 3L.
So, OP, write Ʃ torques = angular acceleration and solve for y(t)/x(t). Since it asks for the transfer function I assume you've been exposed to the Laplace transform or the Fourier.
I don't know why they ask for the transfer function and time constant. The transfer function by itself contains all the available information including time constants.
Chestermiller said:Rude man: To expand on this, it looks like those dark rectangles dangling from the bottom are not masses. It seems to me they are rigid constraints (i.e., with zero displacement). So, in my judgement, the system consists purely of springs and dashpots. x(t) is an arbitrary time-dependent forcing displacement, and y(t) is the time-dependent response of the spring dashpot system. It doesn't seem like the angular accelerations will be required, although the vertical velocities and displacements are important, and, as you said, a balance of moments is required. Also there is a kinematic condition between y(t), and the displacements at other key locations along the plank.
Chet
Agree.rude man said:I agree, those dark thingies "hanging" at the bottom are additional "walls" i.e. fixed boundaries.
You agree or not, the thing connecting the springs and dashpot is a massless rod or similar?
Yes.And it's pivoted at that triangular extension away from the wall on the left?
Not exactly. If the rod is massless, its moment of inertia is zero. The moment balance is then:The equation of motion is one of summing torques = angular acceleration of the rod = d2θ/dt2.
Since θ is small, we can work exclusively with y(t). The downward displacements at L and 2L are y/3 and 2y/3.y(t) is then = 3L*θ(t).
MMCS said:Working:
K (y/3) + K (y/3) + C dy/dt (2y/3) = y(t)
**i have ommitted the x from Kx because of no initial displacement?? **
K(2y/3) + C dy/dt (2y/3) = y(t)
Laplace Transform
K(2y/3) + C(2y/3) S = y(t)
Is this correct? What would be the next step to get the transfer function?
Chestermiller said:This is not what I get. Instead of
K(2y/3) + C dy/dt (2y/3) = y(t)
I get
K(2y/3) + C dy/dt (4/3) = kx(t)
From this, you should be able to take the Laplace Transform and get the transfer function.
The displacement is 2y/3, and the moment arm is 2L.MMCS said:How did you get 4/3 for the moment for c?
MMCS said:Ok so now i get,
K*2/3*y(s) + C*2/3*y(s) = Kx(S)
y(s)/x(s) + K/ ( K*2/3 ) + (C*4/3*S)
3/2 * K/( K + 2*C*S)
divide through by K
3/2 * 1/ 1 + 2*C/K
3/2 * 1 / 1 + 2τ
Thanks for the help. i don't want to flood the forum but i am stuck on a similar type question, I am going to post it on here in a minute, it involves unit impulse
Chestermiller said:This is not what I get. Instead of
K(2y/3) + C dy/dt (2y/3) = y(t)
I get
K(2y/3) + C dy/dt (4/3) = kx(t)
From this, you should be able to take the Laplace Transform and get the transfer function.
rude man said:For the spring force I get kx/2 = ky/6, not 2ky/3.
here's my reasoning:
Apply displacement x. Then in the absence of any restraining forces, the mid-point of the springs displaces to x/2.
So now, to get force times distance needed to pull the midpoint back to zero, you can compute the difference in potential energies E before and after the pullback:
Ebefore = 1/2 k (x/2)2 + 1/2 k (x/2)2 = kx2/4
Eafter = 1/2 k x2 + 0 (top & bottom spring respectively) = kx2/2
delta E = Fx/2 = kx2/4 or F = kx/2.
I now assumed finite I for which my torque-summing equation is
Iθ'' = kLx/2 - 2cL2θ'
and after Laplace etc. I got θ(s)/X(s) = (kL/2) / s(sI + 2cL2)
and if we let I → 0 we get the surprising result that
θ(s)/X(s) = k/4cLs
i.e. an integral relationship between x and y: since y = 3Lθ, Y(s)/X(s) = 3k/4cs.
BTW: in your approach using only forces, what happened to the force exerted by the hinge?
Chestermiller said:Hi Rude Man,
I haven't been able to follow in detail yet what you have written, but I'll try some more. With regard to your BTW question, we took moments around the hinge.
Chet