Solving xy ≤ (x^p/p) + (y^q/q) Problem

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating the inequality \( xy \leq \frac{x^p}{p} + \frac{y^q}{q} \) for non-negative \( x \) and \( y \) under the condition \( \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} = 1 \). The context is rooted in analysis and inequalities, particularly involving concave functions and the use of logarithms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use the logarithmic function to leverage its concavity but is uncertain about justifying a particular step in their reasoning. Some participants suggest using derivatives to prove inequalities, while others propose applying the Arithmetic Mean-Geometric Mean inequality as a potential method.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various approaches being explored. Some participants are questioning the applicability of derivatives in this context, while others are presenting alternative methods such as the AM-GM inequality. There is no explicit consensus on a single approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the specific condition on \( p \) and \( q \) and its implications for the problem, which may complicate the use of certain methods. There is also a mention of the challenge posed by the multivariable nature of the inequality.

ELESSAR TELKONT
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My problem is the next:

Show that [tex]\forall x,y\geq 0[/tex] and [tex]\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}=1[/tex] we have that [tex]xy\leq\frac{x^{p}}{p}+\frac{y^{q}}{q}[/tex].

I use the logarithm function because it is concave and grows monotonically and then

[tex]\ln{xy}=\frac{\ln{x^{p}}}{p}+\frac{\ln{y^{q}}}{q}[/tex]

the problem is I don't know to justify the next step (or is justified yet?)

[tex]\ln{xy}=\frac{\ln{x^{p}}}{p}+\frac{\ln{y^{q}}}{q}\leq \ln\left(\frac{x^{p}}{p}+\frac{y^{q}}{q}\right)[/tex].

That's all, I wait for your help.
 
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Derivatives are often good at proving inequalities. e.g. you can prove
f(x) < g(x)
for all positive x as follows:
. f(0) < g(0)
. f'(x) < g'(x) for all positive x

(I don't know if they will be useful here, but it's something I'd try)
 
Hi
This may be brute force but it looks like it works:
Use Arithmetic Mean>= Geometric Mean.
1/p+1/q=1 implies p+q=p.q
Also x^p/p+y^q/q=(q.x^p+p.y^q)/(p.q)
Now AM>=GM implies
(q instances of x^p plus p instances of y^q)/(p+q)>={x^(p.q).y^(q.p)}^(1/(p+q))
LHS is just (p.q).{x^p/p+y^q/q}/(p+q)=x^p/p+y^q/q
RHS is x.y

Hope this helps
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Hurkyl, Derivatives only help easily in inequalities of 1 variable :( Even if he expressed y as a function of x, the condition on p and q pose difficulty.
 

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