lazykid
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Hello.
This message is not homework. I came up with the problem on my own.
Trying to think about the value measured by an accelerometer in different scenarios, I ended up with a strange conclusion.
Hopefully with your help I will be able to figure out if I'm doing something wrong.
Consider 2 ponctual masses, m1 and m2.
By gravitational attraction, m2 exerts on m1 a force:
\vec{F_2}
By gravitational attraction, m1 exerts on m2 a force:
\vec{F_1}=-\vec{F_2}
Additionally, another force is applied on m2:
\vec{F_m}=\left(1+\frac{m_2}{m_1}\right)\vec{F_2}
(for example using some kind of motor)
The acceleration of m1 is given by:
\vec{a_1}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1}
The acceleration of m2 is given by:
\vec{a_2}=\frac{\vec{F_1}+\vec{F_m}}{m_2}=\frac{\left(-1+\left(1+\frac{m_2}{m_1}\right)\right)\vec{F_2}}{m_2}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1}=\vec{a_1}
(I tried to define \vec{F_m} the way it is just for that).
To convince myself that this result makes sense, if I consider the system m1 + m2, I can verify that its acceleration is:
\frac{\vec{F_m}}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1} = \vec{a_1} = \vec{a_2}
But here comes the odd part.
Initially, both masses are at rest and at a distance d > 0 from one another.
If I let the system evolve for a while, it accelerates with a constant acceleration and the distance between m1 and m2 stays constant, with the value d.
But then, the only force that is applied to m1 is the gravitational force of m2.
And by staying at a constant distance from m2, this gravitational force is constant and m1 is always in free fall, moving with the same constant acceleration (as m2).
So, an accelerometer placed on m1 would always indicate 0.
If m2 were the Earth, it would be like maintaining a falling object in mid-air by moving the Earth away from it as it falls.
One example I can think of that almost matches my problem is the ISS in orbit around the Earth : its distance from Earth doesn't change a lot, and astronauts are constantly accelerated by gravity without feeling it.
But m1 isn't in orbit (?) so it does seem a little paradoxical and I'd like to get your opinions on that: am I making a mistake? and if so, what is it?
Thanks,
Dan
This message is not homework. I came up with the problem on my own.
Trying to think about the value measured by an accelerometer in different scenarios, I ended up with a strange conclusion.
Hopefully with your help I will be able to figure out if I'm doing something wrong.
Consider 2 ponctual masses, m1 and m2.
By gravitational attraction, m2 exerts on m1 a force:
\vec{F_2}
By gravitational attraction, m1 exerts on m2 a force:
\vec{F_1}=-\vec{F_2}
Additionally, another force is applied on m2:
\vec{F_m}=\left(1+\frac{m_2}{m_1}\right)\vec{F_2}
(for example using some kind of motor)
The acceleration of m1 is given by:
\vec{a_1}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1}
The acceleration of m2 is given by:
\vec{a_2}=\frac{\vec{F_1}+\vec{F_m}}{m_2}=\frac{\left(-1+\left(1+\frac{m_2}{m_1}\right)\right)\vec{F_2}}{m_2}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1}=\vec{a_1}
(I tried to define \vec{F_m} the way it is just for that).
To convince myself that this result makes sense, if I consider the system m1 + m2, I can verify that its acceleration is:
\frac{\vec{F_m}}{m_1+m_2}=\frac{\vec{F_2}}{m_1} = \vec{a_1} = \vec{a_2}
But here comes the odd part.
Initially, both masses are at rest and at a distance d > 0 from one another.
If I let the system evolve for a while, it accelerates with a constant acceleration and the distance between m1 and m2 stays constant, with the value d.
But then, the only force that is applied to m1 is the gravitational force of m2.
And by staying at a constant distance from m2, this gravitational force is constant and m1 is always in free fall, moving with the same constant acceleration (as m2).
So, an accelerometer placed on m1 would always indicate 0.
If m2 were the Earth, it would be like maintaining a falling object in mid-air by moving the Earth away from it as it falls.
One example I can think of that almost matches my problem is the ISS in orbit around the Earth : its distance from Earth doesn't change a lot, and astronauts are constantly accelerated by gravity without feeling it.
But m1 isn't in orbit (?) so it does seem a little paradoxical and I'd like to get your opinions on that: am I making a mistake? and if so, what is it?
Thanks,
Dan