Pleonasm said:
In relativity of simultaneity, two spatially separated events are time relative as to the order in which they might occur to the observer (time is relative). However, if the two events are causally connected, the order is preserved in all frames of reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relativity_of_simultaneity
I think you are misunderstanding the term "causally disconnected" in this context. Two space-like separated (not merely spatially separated) events, A and B, are causally disconnected if A could not cause B and B could not cause A. The term is agnostic about how events A and B came about. For example, imagine a lamp half way between two mirrors. The lamp emits a pulse of light (call this event L) which spreads out and eventually arrives at the mirrors (events A and B). Event L is causally connected to both A and B (what happened at L caused what happened at A and B, after all). However events A and B are causally disconnected - what happens at A does not and cannot affect what happens at B, and vice versa. In this example, the point is that the reflection of light at the mirrors does not care how there comes to be a pulse of light traveling to it. It will reflect the light just the same whether it is in the experiment I described or one where there are two lamps, or five, or whatever.
Pleonasm said:
But what logically motivates this dinstinction in the first place? How can one make sense of this empirically proven universe, if you at the same time take the view of causality being a fact since the beginning of universe, entailing that all events are by necessity causally connected to each other.
Why then are spatially separated events not subject to specific ordering in a cause-effect universe?
The distinction between causally connected and disconnected events, like everything in relativity, follows from Einstein's postulate that the speed of light is independent of source and observer. This means that light always passes you at 3×10
8ms
-1 whatever you are doing. That means that, in a universe governed by relativity, you can never accelerate past light speed - if you could, there would be a moment when you were stationary with respect to light, in which case it couldn't be passing you at 3×10
8ms
-1. That, in turn, means that any two things that are far enough apart that light can't cross the gap between them in the time between them can't possibly affect each other. That means it doesn't really matter what order the events are in.
Pleonasm said:
How will I make sense of time delay in special relativity, if I don't believe it's an objectively existing property of the universe? Can perceived time passage be defined as different points in space, if one adheres to Minkowski/Einsteins 4-dimensional block-universe theory of time? Just curious.
The point about the causal structure of the universe is that any point in the block universe (warning: that's just a model, not necessarily the reality!) can divide the universe into three regions: its future light cone (the 3+1 dimensional volume that can see the event), its past light cone (the 3+1 dimensional volume that can be seen from the event) and the rest of space-time (Penrose apparently just calls this "elsewhere"). It turns out that all observers will agree on what is inside the light cones and what is outside. So they will all agree that events in the future light cone happened after the "main" event, so to speak, and that events in the past light cone happened before it. They will also agree that the interval between the events (Δs
2=(cΔt)
2-(Δx
2+Δy
2+Δz
2) is the same - this is analogous to the distance between two points in Euclidean geometry.
Everyone agrees that there is time. They just don't agree on exactly which direction it is, in the block universe. That is, fundamentally, no more mysterious than you and I disagreeing which way is left and which way is right because we aren't facing the same way.
Pleonasm said:
Also: are events within Earth causally disconnected to each other in a similar way in the following: "a car crash in London and another in New York, which appear to happen at the same time to an observer on the earth, will appear to have occurred at slightly different times to an observer on an airplane flying between London and New York".
It's the example above that I found logically disturbing. But I guess it shouldn't be.
Yes, this applies everywhere. The car crashes will not be simultaneous to all observers. But it doesn't matter, because if light from one crash can't have reached the other crash, then neither crash could have been caused or avoided by rubbernecking the other.
It's not
logically disturbing. It just goes against your intuitive (Newtonian, with absolute time) feeling of how the world works. It takes a while for the Einsteinian model to settle in and get properly separated from your everyday intuitive model. You can go a long way by always asking "relative to what" when someone says "velocity", and "according to who?" when someone says "same place" or "same time".