MHB Split Monomorphisma .... Bland Definition 3.2.2 & Proposition 3.2.3 ....

  • Thread starter Thread starter Math Amateur
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Definition Split
Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,920
Reaction score
48
I am reading Paul E. Bland's book "Rings and Their Modules" ...

Currently I am focused on Section 3.2 Exact Sequences in $$\text{Mod}_R$$ ... ...

I need some help in order to fully understand Definition 3.2.2 and Proposition 3.2.3 ...

Definition 3.2.2 and Proposition 3.2.3 read as follows:
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/8072
In Definition 3.2.2 we read that $$f'f = \text{id}_{M_1}$$ ... ... BUT ... ... I thought that $$f'f$$ was only defined on $$f(M) = \text{Im } f $$ ... ... what then happens to elements $$x \in M$$ that are outside of $$f(M) = \text{Im } f$$ ... ... see Fig. 1 below ...
View attachment 8073Note that in the proof of Proposition 3.2.3 we read:" ... ... If $$x \in M$$, then $$f'(x) \in M_1$$ ... ... " But ... how does this work for $$x$$ outside of $$f(M) = \text{Im } f $$ such as $$x$$ shown in Fig. 1 above?
I would be grateful if someone could explain how Definition 3.2.2 "works" ... ...

Peter
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi, Peter.

The condition that needs to occur in order to form the composition $f'f$ (or any function composition) is that $f$'s range must be a subset of $f'$'s domain. Since $f'$ is defined on all of $M$, there is no issue forming $f'f$.

Even when $x\in M-f(M_{1})$, $f'(x)$ still exists because $f'$ is defined on all of $M$.
 
GJA said:
Hi, Peter.

The condition that needs to occur in order to form the composition $f'f$ (or any function composition) is that $f$'s range must be a subset of $f'$'s domain. Since $f'$ is defined on all of $M$, there is no issue forming $f'f$.

Even when $x\in M-f(M_{1})$, $f'(x)$ still exists because $f'$ is defined on all of $M$.

Thanks GJA ...

Appreciate your help...

Peter
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
923
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
25
Views
4K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K