Square Pulse Train Fourier Series help?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on deriving the Fourier series for a square pulse train, specifically focusing on the transformation of sinusoidal functions to accommodate the x-direction. The user correctly identifies the relationship between frequency (ω) and wavelength (β) using the equations ω=2πf and β=2π/λ. They derive the Fourier series as 1 + (20/π) ∑ (1/n) sin(nπ/10) cos[n(ωt-βx)], with ω set to 2π*10^6 and β calculated as π/150 based on a wavelength of 300m. The user seeks confirmation of their approach and calculations.

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Square Pulse Train Fourier Series help??

Homework Statement


problem+directions below:
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Homework Equations


ω=2\pif
β=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}

The Attempt at a Solution


Since the problem asks to make all time-dependent sinusoidal functions deal with x-direction, i don't think i need to worry about the sin function because it is dependent on td (duty cycle) and not time. I am aware of the cos format for x and t dependent but this is how i would plan to change it (for the equation with both sin and cos):
cos(n*2\pif*t) -> cos[n(ωt-βx)]

basically I just factored out the n, and I don't think I need to include any phase shift. I just changed the cos part, the rest of the equation stays the same.

I can worry about using Fourier series with MATLAB later, I just wanted to know if the equation for the Fourier series I had was right. also, I don't know how to find the value of wavelength for β, since it is not given anywhere. would i need to use the equation for phase velocity, if it is related to the f given somehow?
 
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OK, so thankfully our professor went over how to find the wavelength in a lecture. According to him in a non-dispersive medium, the phase velocity is simply c=speed of light=3x108. So if I use the equation up=f*λ and given f, then the wavelength λ=300m. So now my Fourier series equation looks like this:

1+\frac{20}{\pi} \sum{\frac{1}{n}sin(\frac{n\pi}{10})cos[n(ωt-βx)]} where ω=2\pi*106, β=\frac{2\pi}{300} = \frac{\pi}{150}, and the Fourier series goes from n=1 to a finite number N=1000 (not infinity).

can someone confirm this is right so far?
 

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