Squaring an Integral of a function

In summary, the conversation discusses the proof of the closed form of the Gaussian Integral and the appearance of the expression $${(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx)}^2= \int_0^\infty f(x)dx+\int_0^\infty f(y)dy $$. The person asking the question is seeking an explanation for the identity and its justification, while the other person explains that it is a result of multiplying the integral by itself and using a dummy variable for the second term. The conversation also mentions the use of polar coordinates in the computation of the Gaussian integral.
  • #1
occh
14
2
In the proof of the closed form of the Gaussian Integral the expression$${(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx)}^2= \int_0^\infty f(x)dx+\int_0^\infty f(y)dy $$ appears. I have seen it multiple places and understand this step is justified, but I cannot find a theorem for it anywhere. Can anybody explain the reasoning behind this identity?
 
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  • #2
It is not true the way you have written it down. Did you mean to write the following?
$$
\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx \right)^2 = \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx \right)\cdot \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) dy \right)
$$
 
  • #3
Yeah definitely multiplied, but I'm nearly positive that the RHS bottom limits are 0.
Regardless, my question still holds, where does this identity come from (in whatever form it actually has)
 
  • #4
Well, the integral is just a number:
$$
I = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx
$$
which you can square, which results in a multiplication ##I\cdot I##. The variable ##x## is just a dummy variable which is being integrated over and you can call it ##y## in the second term. If you call it ##x## in the second term you may run into trouble because you just named two different dummy variables the same thing, if you name it ##y##, everything in the first integral is constant wrt ##y## and you can move it inside the second integral without problem.
 
  • Like
Likes occh
  • #5
Great, thanks!
 
  • #6
occh said:
Yeah definitely multiplied, but I'm nearly positive that the RHS bottom limits are 0.
Regardless, my question still holds, where does this identity come from (in whatever form it actually has)
If the integrand is symmetric (Gaussian is), then the integral starting at 0 is 1/2 the total.
 
  • #7
mathman said:
If the integrand is symmetric (Gaussian is), then the integral starting at 0 is 1/2 the total.

However, it should be noted that the standard computation of the Gaussian integral uses all of ##\mathbb R^2## as the integration domain and does the evaluation in polar coordinates in the ##xy##-plane. This results in a range for the radial coordinate ##r## which is 0 to ##\infty##, which I suspect is the source of the confusion in this case.
 

1. What does it mean to "square" an integral of a function?

Squaring an integral of a function means to take the integral and multiply it by itself. This can also be written as taking the integral of the function squared.

2. Why would someone want to square an integral of a function?

Squaring an integral can be useful in certain mathematical calculations or when trying to find the area under a curve that is not easily integrable.

3. Can you square both sides of an equation that includes an integral?

Yes, you can square both sides of an equation that includes an integral as long as you keep in mind the proper rules and techniques for solving the resulting equation.

4. Is squaring an integral the same as taking the integral of a squared function?

No, squaring an integral and taking the integral of a squared function are not the same. Squaring an integral means to multiply the integral by itself, while taking the integral of a squared function means to find the integral of the function after it has been squared.

5. Are there any special considerations when squaring an integral?

Yes, when squaring an integral, it is important to pay attention to the limits of integration and the properties of the function being integrated. Additionally, integration by parts may be necessary in some cases.

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