Squaring an Integral of a function

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    Function Integral
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the identity involving the square of an integral, specifically in the context of the Gaussian Integral. Participants explore the reasoning behind the expression and its justification, addressing various interpretations and potential misunderstandings related to the limits of integration.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the validity of the expression $$(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx)^2$$ and seeks clarification on its justification.
  • Another participant suggests that the expression should be written as a product of two integrals, $$\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx \right)\cdot \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) dy \right$$, indicating a potential misunderstanding in the original formulation.
  • A participant emphasizes that the integral is a number that can be squared, explaining that the variable used in the integral is a dummy variable and can be renamed without affecting the result.
  • There is a mention that if the integrand is symmetric, the integral from 0 to infinity is half of the total integral, specifically in the case of Gaussian functions.
  • Another participant notes that the standard computation of the Gaussian integral involves integrating over the entire plane in polar coordinates, which may clarify the confusion regarding the limits of integration.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the correct formulation of the integral identity and its limits. There is no consensus on a single interpretation, and the discussion remains unresolved regarding the precise nature of the identity.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential confusion stemming from the use of dummy variables and the limits of integration, particularly in the context of symmetric integrands like the Gaussian function.

occh
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In the proof of the closed form of the Gaussian Integral the expression$${(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)dx)}^2= \int_0^\infty f(x)dx+\int_0^\infty f(y)dy $$ appears. I have seen it multiple places and understand this step is justified, but I cannot find a theorem for it anywhere. Can anybody explain the reasoning behind this identity?
 
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It is not true the way you have written it down. Did you mean to write the following?
$$
\left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx \right)^2 = \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx \right)\cdot \left(\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) dy \right)
$$
 
Yeah definitely multiplied, but I'm nearly positive that the RHS bottom limits are 0.
Regardless, my question still holds, where does this identity come from (in whatever form it actually has)
 
Well, the integral is just a number:
$$
I = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx
$$
which you can square, which results in a multiplication ##I\cdot I##. The variable ##x## is just a dummy variable which is being integrated over and you can call it ##y## in the second term. If you call it ##x## in the second term you may run into trouble because you just named two different dummy variables the same thing, if you name it ##y##, everything in the first integral is constant wrt ##y## and you can move it inside the second integral without problem.
 
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Great, thanks!
 
occh said:
Yeah definitely multiplied, but I'm nearly positive that the RHS bottom limits are 0.
Regardless, my question still holds, where does this identity come from (in whatever form it actually has)
If the integrand is symmetric (Gaussian is), then the integral starting at 0 is 1/2 the total.
 
mathman said:
If the integrand is symmetric (Gaussian is), then the integral starting at 0 is 1/2 the total.

However, it should be noted that the standard computation of the Gaussian integral uses all of ##\mathbb R^2## as the integration domain and does the evaluation in polar coordinates in the ##xy##-plane. This results in a range for the radial coordinate ##r## which is 0 to ##\infty##, which I suspect is the source of the confusion in this case.
 

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