I Stationary Monopole exist at the Origin

[Philosophaie]

A stationary Monopole exist at the Origin.

1)$\vec{B} = \frac{g \hat r}{4 \pi r^2}$
2)$\vec{E} = \frac{e \hat r}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$

3)$- \nabla \times \vec{E} = \frac{\partial \vec B}{c \partial t} + \frac{4 \pi}{c} \vec{J_m}$
4)$\nabla \times \vec{B} = \frac{\partial \vec E}{c \partial t} + \frac{4 \pi}{c} \vec{J_e}$

$- \nabla \times \vec{E} = 0$
$\frac{\partial B}{c \partial t} = 0$
therefore
$J_m = 0$

Similarly
$J_e = 0$

Is this correct?

 

[Dale]

There is no evidence for magnetic monopoles, so any discussion about how they would behave is speculation

 

[vanhees71]

Well, it's nevertheless interesting. Of course, in the static case you have $\vec{J}_e=\vec{J}_m=0$.

 

[jtbell]

My first-year intro physics textbook (Halliday & Resnick, Fundamentals of Physics, 2nd ed., early 1970s) noted briefly that Maxwell's equations could be made symmetric between E and B by introducing magnetic monopoles, in the form shown in post #1 (as well as in Wikipedia). It then quickly noted, of course, that no magnetic monopoles have ever been observed. And this is probably not the only way one could set up electromagnetism with monopoles, simply the most "obvious" way.