Sturm-Liouville and Rayleigh Quotient Problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Sturm-Liouville problem, specifically identifying that for the given equation, p(x) equals 1, q(x) equals 0, and σ(x) equals 1. The equation can be simplified to the Rayleigh quotient form (∫(dΦ(x)/dx)^2)/(∫Φ(x)^2) with integrals bounded from 0 to L. It is established that the eigenfunction Φ(x) cannot be identically zero, and the proof provided confirms that both the numerator and denominator of the Rayleigh quotient are positive, ensuring the validity of the formulation.

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FAS1998
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Homework Statement
I’ve included an image of the problem below. This isn’t technically a homework problem. It’s a practice test question that I have the solutions for. I’m stuck at part 2. I have to show that eigenvalues are positive with the Rayleigh quotient.
Relevant Equations
d/dx(p(x)d*phi(x)/dx) + q(x)*phi(x) + lamda*sigma(x)*phi(x)
By comparing the given equation to the equation for the Sturm-Liouville form, I see that p(x) must equal 1, q(x) must equal 0 and sigma(x) must equal 1.

After this, I have no idea what I should be doing for part 2.
 

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I see now that by plugging in values of p(x), q(x), and σ(x) into the equation, and then applying boundary conditions, it can be reduced to (∫(dΦ(x)/dx)^2)/(∫Φ(x)^2), with both integrals bounded from 0 to L.

I also understand that Φ(x) cannot be identically 0 because it's an eigenfunction.

I still don't understand how we know that both the top and bottom function are not less than 0.
 
FAS1998 said:
I see now that by plugging in values of p(x), q(x), and σ(x) into the equation, and then applying boundary conditions, it can be reduced to (∫(dΦ(x)/dx)^2)/(∫Φ(x)^2), with both integrals bounded from 0 to L.

I also understand that Φ(x) cannot be identically 0 because it's an eigenfunction.

I still don't understand how we know that both the top and bottom function are not less than 0.

This follows from the following straightforward proposition:

Let f : [a,b] \to \mathbb{R} be continuous, non-negative and not identically zero. Then \int_a^b f(x)\,dx > 0.
Proof: As f is non-negative and not identically zero, there exists x_0 \in [a,b] such that f(x_0) &gt; 0. By continuity of f, there exists an interval [c,d] \subseteq [a,b] of strictly positive width containing x_0 such that if x \in [c,d] then f(x) \geq \frac12 f(x_0). But then <br /> \int_a^b f(x)\,dx \geq \int_c^d f(x)\,dx \geq \int_c^d \tfrac12 f(x_0)\,dx = \tfrac12 (d - c)f(x_0) &gt; 0 as required.
 
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