Suppose there is a semiconductor with Fermi energy

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SUMMARY

The mean number of excited electrons in a semiconductor with Fermi energy \(E_f\) is expressed as \(\bar n(T) = \frac{N}{\exp(\beta(\mu - E_f)) + 1}\), where \(\mu\) represents the chemical potential and \(N\) denotes the number of bound electron states. This formulation derives from Fermi-Dirac statistics, which states that the mean occupation number for a fermion is \(\bar n = \frac{1}{\exp(\beta(E - \mu)) + 1}\). The relationship between \(\mu\) and \(E_f\) is crucial, as it reflects the occupancy of states in the conduction band and the holes in the valence band. The approximation of using the top of the valence band as \(E\) is valid under certain conditions but may fail in heavily p-type semiconductors.

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Suppose there is a semiconductor with Fermi energy $E_f$ and that there are $N$ bound electron states.

I'd like to know why the mean number of excited electrons takes the form \bar n(T)={N\over \exp\beta(\mu-E_f)+1}

where \mu is the chemical potential.

____
I can see that the Fermi Dirac statistics say that for one fermion the mean occupation number is \bar n = {1\over \exp\beta(E-\mu)+1}
I am not sure however as to how for the semi-conductor it should assume the above form. The N is clearly due to the N bound e^- states. I am not quite so confident as to why \mu\to E_f, E\to \mu

Could someone please explain?

Many thanks.
 
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i think by E, you mean the top of the valence band?
Every electron that is not bound is excited (or makes a "hole" in the valence band and an electron in the conduction band).
There are N bound states, so the number of excited electron is N* (1- fermi_dirac_dist(E))
mathematically, this is the the same as changing the palces of Ef and E, try it.
By the way, using E as the top of the valence band is an approximation which doesn't work if, for example, the semiconductor is very heavily p-type.
 
Last edited:
Thank you, Giga_Man!
 

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