Taylor expansion about lagrangian in noether

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the application of Taylor expansion in the context of Noether's theorem, specifically regarding Lagrangian transformations. The transformation of the Lagrangian, represented as ##L' = L(\sigma(q, a), \frac{d}{dt}\sigma(q,a), t)##, leads to the conclusion that the first-order term in the Taylor expansion suffices for establishing equivalence between Lagrangians. The key insight is that if the Lagrangians differ by a total time derivative, then ##\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda## holds true, allowing for simplification in the analysis of infinitesimal transformations. This foundational understanding is crucial for deriving conservation laws from the Euler-Lagrange equations.

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gionole
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I was studying a derivation of noether's theorem mathematically and something struck my eyes.

Suppose you have ##L(q, \dot q, t)## and you transform it and get ##L' = L(\sigma(q, a), \frac{d}{dt}\sigma(q,a), t)##. ##\sigma## is a transformation function for ##q##

Let's represent ##L'## by taylor around point 0, which gives us:

##L(q, \dot q) + a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ...##

Now, here is the tricky part: If lagrangians(before and after transformation) are differed by total time derivative of some function, we can say that:
##\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##

Note that first order from taylor turned out to be enough, even though taylor only with first order is not the exact(100%) approximation of any ##L##. So it turns out that we use: ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = a\frac{d}{dt}\Lambda## instead of ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ... = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##

I am told that we can do this because ##a## is infinetisemal transformation, but still don't get why this works. I know I need to know lie theory to understand this, but isn't there really any other way to somehow grasp it without bunch of math ?
 
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You just need that ##L'## and ##L## should be equivalent Lagrangians, i.e., that there exists a function ##\Omega(q,t)## such that
$$L'[\sigma(q,a),\dot{\sigma}(q,a),t]=L(q,\dot{q},t]+\dot{\Omega}(q,t),$$
where the dots mean total derivatives (symmetry condition).

For an infinitesimal transformation, i.e., ##q'=q+\epsilon \sigma(q,t)## you can make the ansatz ##\Omega(q,t)=-\epsilon \tilde{\Omega}(q,t)## and expand the LHS of the symmetry condition to first order in ##\epsilon##, which then leads to a conservation law for the solutions of the Euler-Lagrange equations.

BTW: That's only the most simple special form of the transformations considered in Noether's theorem. You can extend it to more general transformations,
$$t'=t+\epsilon \Theta(q,\dot{q},t), \quad q'=q+\epsilon Q(q,\dot{q},t).$$
Then
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} t'} L[q+\epsilon Q,\dot{q}+\epsilon \dot{Q},t+\epsilon \Theta(q,\dot{q},t)]=L(q,\dot{q},t) -\epsilon \dot{\tilde{\Omega}}(q,t).$$
Now again you can expand everything to 1st order in ##\epsilon## to get the symmetry condition, and then there follows again a conservation law for the solutions of the Euler-Lagrange equations.
 

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