The Arrow of Time: The Laws of Physics and the Concept of Time Reversal

  • #201
A-wal said:
The acceleration required to resist the pull of gravity would be infinite at the horizon like trying to reach c as I said a few posts ago, but it wouldn't be infinite at any distance, no matter how small. So what's the problem with observers hovering closer and closer to the horizon?

There isn't one, as long as you aren't trying to reason about what happens *at* the horizon, or whether observers can or cannot cross it. But as soon as you try to reason about events *at* (or below) the horizon (as for example when you say "time dilation becomes infinite" at the horizon, or "the closer observer can't reach the horizon because the further observer can never observe it"), the implicit assumptions you are making, which are valid above the horizon, break down, and hence your reasoning breaks down.

You seem to think that the hypothetical "observer at the horizon" is somehow a "limiting case" of observers hovering closer and closer to the horizon, so you can use something like "acceleration goes to infinity" to argue that the horizon can't be reached, in the same way you argue that the speed of light can't be reached because it would require infinite energy. That's not correct; the two situations are not analogous, even though there are some apparent similarities. For example, the horizon is a "null surface"--light beams emitted exactly at the horizon stay at the horizon forever--so it does appear to be "moving outward at the speed of light" to freely falling observers that pass through the horizon, just as the Rindler horizon in Egan's diagram, which is simply the line t = x, appears to be moving outward--in the positive x-direction--at the speed of light to Adam, who is following the worldline x = s_0, and crosses the horizon at the event x = s_0, t = s_0. However, the horizon does *not* appear to be moving outward at the speed of light to observers hovering at a constant radial coordinate r outside the horizon--it appears to be staying in the same place forever, the Schwarzschild radius r = 2M, just as the Rindler horizon in Egan's diagram appears to stay in the same place forever to Eve, whose worldline is the hyperbola x^{2} - t^{2} = s_{0}^{2}--to her, the horizon is always at a distance s_0 below her.

(By the way, I should emphasize that the Schwarzschild radial coordinate r is *not* a measure of actual radial distance, so, for example, if I am hovering at r = 2.5M, that does *not* mean I am an actual physical distance 0.5M above the horizon at r = 2M. This is one way in which the Adam and Eve situation is *not* exactly analogous to the situation outside a black hole; the x-coordinate s_0 where Eve's and Adam's worldlines meet *is* an actual physical distance, so the horizon does appear to be at a distance s_0 below Eve. This also means, by the way, that the radial coordinate r = 2M does *not* represent the physical "radius" of the horizon or the black hole. Physically, the Schwarzschild r coordinate is defined such that the *area* of the 2-sphere at a given r is 4 \pi r^{2}, and the *circumference* of any great circle on such a 2-sphere is 2 \pi r; so the physical meaning of the horizon being at r = 2M is that the *area* of the horizon, as a 2-sphere, is 16 \pi M^{2}, and the circumference of a great circle at the horizon is 4 \pi M. But because the spacetime is curved, the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r. Good relativity texts are careful not to refer to r as a physical radius for that reason; Kip Thorne's *Black Holes and Time Warps*, for example, always refers to "circumference" instead of "radius".)

So if you want to restrict discussion solely to what happens outside the horizon, that's fine, as long as you are careful *not* to make any claims about what happens at or below the horizon, including whether or not observers can cross it.
 
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  • #202
JesseM said:
By someone in "flatter space-time" do you just mean someone further away from the black hole where the curvature is smaller? If so I don't know what you mean by "relative to" them, are you talking about how you are moving in some coordinate system they are using, how you appear to them visually, something else? Why do you think you are "effectively accelerating", and what does that even mean?
Correct me if I'm wrong but as I understand it an observer hovering closer to the horizon can be looked at undergoing constant acceleration (I'm not talking about the acceleration needed to resist gravity), and a free-falling observer can be looked at as accelerating at an ever increasing rate. But they don't feel as though they're accelerating because it's analogous traveling at a greater relative velocity in that sense. But they do feel the increase in rate of acceleration, as "proper acceleration" which can only be felt under under the influence of extremely strong gravitation. This is called tidal force. Correct?

JesseM said:
And can you please do like I asked and explain whether you think your arguments apply to the case of an observer falling through the Rindler horizon? Why do you think an observer falling through the black hole event horizon is "effectively accelerating" if you don't think the same is true about an observer crossing the Rindler horizon? Why do you think "you would experience time dilation and length contraction as you were accelerating and it would reach infinity at the horizon" in the case of a black hole event horizon, when presumably you don't say that about a Rindler horizon? In both cases, after all, an observer hovering at fixed distance above the horizon sees your time dilation approach infinity as you approach the horizon in a visual sense, but if you don't think this implies the time dilation is "really" going to infinity in the case of the Rindler horizon, what makes you so sure the time dilation is "really" going to infinity in the case of a black hole event horizon? What is the relevant difference for you?
Okay I've just looked it up and it seems that the Rindler horizon is just the point at which light (and therefore anything else) emitted from a greater certain relative velocity can't ever catch up to the accelerating observer. Is your point that in the flat space-time example the observer who stays behind will never see the accelerating observer disappear despite the fact that no signal sent will ever reach them, and this means that objects can disappear into a black hole despite the fact that observers further away can never witness this happening? For the black hole analogy it's just that there will be a point when light sent from a greater distance from the black hole can never reach a free-falling observer... before the black holes death anyway. That's because a free-falling observer in curved space-time is equivalent to an accelerating observer in flat space-time as I said above. This does nothing to address the issue of crossing an event horizon. Maybe I misunderstood the Rindler horizon though. This gives me an interesting thought. Acceleration can also be looked at as velocity relative to a non-constant c. Is that in any way meaningful or just complete bollocks? I can't tell any more. Too much having to find the words to define exactly what I'm getting at. Such a pain.

PeterDonis said:
There isn't one, as long as you aren't trying to reason about what happens *at* the horizon, or whether observers can or cannot cross it. But as soon as you try to reason about events *at* (or below) the horizon (as for example when you say "time dilation becomes infinite" at the horizon, or "the closer observer can't reach the horizon because the further observer can never observe it"), the implicit assumptions you are making, which are valid above the horizon, break down, and hence your reasoning breaks down.
Of course my reasoning breaks down at the event horizon, along with common sense and anything resembling logic it seems. That's because my reasoning can't reach the event horizon. That's the whole point.

PeterDonis said:
You seem to think that the hypothetical "observer at the horizon" is somehow a "limiting case" of observers hovering closer and closer to the horizon, so you can use something like "acceleration goes to infinity" to argue that the horizon can't be reached, in the same way you argue that the speed of light can't be reached because it would require infinite energy. That's not correct; the two situations are not analogous, even though there are some apparent similarities. For example, the horizon is a "null surface"--light beams emitted exactly at the horizon stay at the horizon forever--so it does appear to be "moving outward at the speed of light" to freely falling observers that pass through the horizon, just as the Rindler horizon in Egan's diagram, which is simply the line t = x, appears to be moving outward--in the positive x-direction--at the speed of light to Adam, who is following the worldline x = s_0, and crosses the horizon at the event x = s_0, t = s_0. However, the horizon does *not* appear to be moving outward at the speed of light to observers hovering at a constant radial coordinate r outside the horizon--it appears to be staying in the same place forever, the Schwarzschild radius r = 2M, just as the Rindler horizon in Egan's diagram appears to stay in the same place forever to Eve, whose worldline is the hyperbola x^{2} - t^{2} = s_{0}^{2}--to her, the horizon is always at a distance s_0 below her.
You've lost me a bit there. Can you express that in the form of a story?

PeterDonis said:
(By the way, I should emphasize that the Schwarzschild radial coordinate r is *not* a measure of actual radial distance, so, for example, if I am hovering at r = 2.5M, that does *not* mean I am an actual physical distance 0.5M above the horizon at r = 2M. This is one way in which the Adam and Eve situation is *not* exactly analogous to the situation outside a black hole; the x-coordinate s_0 where Eve's and Adam's worldlines meet *is* an actual physical distance, so the horizon does appear to be at a distance s_0 below Eve. This also means, by the way, that the radial coordinate r = 2M does *not* represent the physical "radius" of the horizon or the black hole. Physically, the Schwarzschild r coordinate is defined such that the *area* of the 2-sphere at a given r is 4 \pi r^{2}, and the *circumference* of any great circle on such a 2-sphere is 2 \pi r; so the physical meaning of the horizon being at r = 2M is that the *area* of the horizon, as a 2-sphere, is 16 \pi M^{2}, and the circumference of a great circle at the horizon is 4 \pi M. But because the spacetime is curved, the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r. Good relativity texts are careful not to refer to r as a physical radius for that reason; Kip Thorne's *Black Holes and Time Warps*, for example, always refers to "circumference" instead of "radius".)
Now that makes sense. "But because the spacetime is curved, the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r." That's why I love relativity.

PeterDonis said:
So if you want to restrict discussion solely to what happens outside the horizon, that's fine, as long as you are careful *not* to make any claims about what happens at or below the horizon, including whether or not observers can cross it.
But if I don't see how it can be reached then I don't see how it can be crossed!


Look at a graph that shows the path of an observer past an event horizon and the proper time they experience. Say the starting point is roughly 1 light year away from the black hole and the starting speed is .5c. At half the speed of light it shouldn't take two years to get there as the graph suggests because the distance will increase as they enter more and more length contracted space. The exact opposite in fact of an accelerating observer taking less proper time to reach their destination than their original frame suggested because of length contraction shortening the distance.
 
  • #203
A-wal said:
Of course my reasoning breaks down at the event horizon, along with common sense and anything resembling logic it seems. That's because my reasoning can't reach the event horizon. That's the whole point.
That is only because you are restricting your reasoning to Schwarzschild coordinates and Schwarzschild coordinates do not cover the event horizon. There is nothing wrong with common sense, logic, reason, or math, it is just that the coordinate chart ends before you get to the horizon.

A-wal said:
But if I don't see how it can be reached then I don't see how it can be crossed!
By using a coordinate system that includes the event horizon and even points inside the event horizon.
 
  • #204
A-wal said:
Correct me if I'm wrong but as I understand it an observer hovering closer to the horizon can be looked at undergoing constant acceleration (I'm not talking about the acceleration needed to resist gravity), and a free-falling observer can be looked at as accelerating at an ever increasing rate. But they don't feel as though they're accelerating because it's analogous traveling at a greater relative velocity in that sense. But they do feel the increase in rate of acceleration, as "proper acceleration" which can only be felt under under the influence of extremely strong gravitation. This is called tidal force. Correct?

I'll let JesseM weigh in as well, but I wanted to comment on this because it seems to me to be getting at a fundamental misconception you have. The acceleration of an observer hovering at constant radial coordinate r in Schwarzschild coordinates *is* "the acceleration needed to resist gravity", in the sense you mean. Since the observer is near a gravitating body, he has to accelerate--fire rockets, stand on the surface of a solid planet, etc.--to keep himself from falling towards it. That acceleration is also his "proper acceleration", and he feels it, just as you feel the 1 g acceleration caused by the surface of the Earth pushing up on you and keeping you from falling towards the Earth's center. So no, hovering at constant r in Schwarzschild coordinates is *not* "analogous to traveling at a greater relative velocity". They're fundamentally different things, because one observer (the one hovering at constant r) feels an acceleration, where the other (one just moving at a greater relative velocity, but still moving inertially) does not.

Tidal force is something different, and I don't think we should get into it until we have the other things we're discussing clear.

A-wal said:
You've lost me a bit there. Can you express that in the form of a story?

I kind of thought I was telling one, but let me restate it with some more details filled in.

Start with a global inertial frame; we'll use coordinates X, T to refer to the distance and time in that frame. (We'll leave out the other two spatial dimensions because they don't affect anything in this scenario.) In this frame we define the following objects and worldlines:

* A light beam is emitted from the origin of these coordinates in the positive X direction; therefore the worldline of that light beam is the line X = T.

* An observer, Eve, is in a rocket ship undergoing a constant proper acceleration (i.e., the acceleration she feels, would measure with an accelerometer, etc.) of a. At time T = 0 in the global inertial frame, she is at the X-coordinate s_0 = 1/a, and at that instant she is momentarily at rest in the global inertial frame. (All units are "geometric units" where the speed of light is 1.) Thus, Eve's worldline is the hyperbola X^2 - T^2 = s_0^2.

* At that same event where Eve is momentarily at rest in the global inertial frame (i.e., the event X = s_0, T = 0), another observer, Adam, drops off her rocket ship and follows an inertial (free-falling) path. Thus, Adam's worldline (for T >= 0) is simply the line X = s_0.

Now, given the above, we can make the following remarks. Note that all of these remarks are just simple deductions from the above; there's no mystery or complication about any of them.

(1) The light beam, T = X, will *never* catch up to Eve; i.e., it will never cross her worldline. This is what justifies the term "Rindler horizon" in reference to the light beam--Eve will never see it, nor will she ever receive any signals from events on the horizon, or in the region of spacetime on the other side of it from her worldline.

(2) Adam, however, will intersect the light beam T = X at the event (X = s_0, T = s_0). At that event, the light beam will appear to him to be moving outward (in the positive X-direction), at the speed of light, of course. This is what justifies us saying that the horizon is moving outward at the speed of light as seen by an observer freely falling past it.

(3) At any event (X, T) on Eve's worldline, we can draw a straight line through the origin (X = 0, T = 0) that intersects that event. Call this line L. Line L will have slope

\frac{T}{X} = \frac{ \sqrt{ X^{2} - s_{0}^{2} } }{X}

This slope gives Eve's velocity at that event, as measured in the global inertial frame. We can do a Lorentz transformation using this velocity to obtain the following:

(3a) Eve will perceive all the events lying on line L to be simultaneous with the event (X, T) where the line crosses her worldline--in other words, she will assign all events on this line a "time" by her clock equal to her proper time at the event (X, T) on her worldline.

(3b) The spatial distance along line L between the origin and the event (X, T) where it crosses Eve's worldline will be s_0. This is true for *every* event on Eve's worldline. Because the origin is on the horizon (the line X = T), this justifies us saying that, from Eve's point of view, the horizon is always a constant distance s_0 below her.

If you have any questions at all about the above, we should get them resolved before proceeding any further.
 
  • #205
A-wal said:
Now that makes sense. "But because the spacetime is curved, the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r." That's why I love relativity.

If this is just a comment, I agree it's amusing. But if you actually mean it to be an argument against the claim I'm making, then we need to go into more detail about what curvature means. The statement I made, that "the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r", is no more mysterious or illogical than the statement, "a triangle drawn on the surface of the Earth can have three right angles, but still be a triangle"--i.e., it can be a triangle without the sum of the angles being 180 degrees. Would you agree with the latter statement?
 
  • #206
A-wal said:
Correct me if I'm wrong but as I understand it an observer hovering closer to the horizon can be looked at undergoing constant acceleration (I'm not talking about the acceleration needed to resist gravity), and a free-falling observer can be looked at as accelerating at an ever increasing rate.
There are only two basic types of "acceleration" I know of, acceleration relative to some coordinate system and proper acceleration which corresponds to the G-forces you feel (and also represents your coordinate acceleration in the local inertial frame where you are instantaneously at rest). Depending on the choice of coordinate system, any observer can have a coordinate acceleration of zero or a nonzero coordinate acceleration. But proper acceleration is more "objective", and a free-falling observer always experiences zero proper acceleration, while a hovering observer has nonzero proper acceleration (I don't know what you mean by 'not talking about the acceleration needed to resist gravity' though).
A-wal said:
But they don't feel as though they're accelerating because it's analogous traveling at a greater relative velocity in that sense.
No idea what you mean by "analogous traveling at a greater relative velocity", or why that analogy would mean they don't feel they're accelerating.
A-wal said:
But they do feel the increase in rate of acceleration, as "proper acceleration" which can only be felt under under the influence of extremely strong gravitation. This is called tidal force. Correct?
None of that really makes sense to me. Proper acceleration is completely different from tidal force, a point particle can experience proper acceleration while tidal forces are felt by extended objects, you can think of them as being due to the fact that gravity isn't uniform so different parts of them are being pulled in different directions or with different proper accelerations (see the final animated gif in http://www.einstein-online.info/spotlights/equivalence_principle on the equivalence principle for example). And proper acceleration doesn't require "extremely strong gravitation", you can feel it when accelerating in the complete absence of gravity, or in any deviation from free-fall in a gravitational field
A-wal said:
Okay I've just looked it up and it seems that the Rindler horizon is just the point at which light (and therefore anything else) emitted from a greater certain relative velocity can't ever catch up to the accelerating observer.
Don't understand what you mean by "from a greater certain relative velocity", any event beyond the Rindler horizon will be unable to send light to the accelerating observer, the velocity of the object whose worldline the event lies on (i.e. the one emitting the light) doesn't matter. If you're familiar with the basic ideas of how inertial spacetime diagrams work in SR (time on vertical axis, space on horizontal, light worldlines always have a slope of 45 degrees, slower-than-light objects always have a slope closer to vertical than 45 degrees) then you can understand the Rindler horizon by looking at the diagram on this page:

ConstantAcc.gif


Here the diagonal 45-degree line is the Rindler horizon, the curved line is an observer with constant proper acceleration (constant G-force) whose worldline is a hyperbola that gets arbitrarily close to the diagonal line but never touches it. If you draw a dot anywhere to the left of the diagonal line, and draw a second 45-degree line emanating from that dot (representing light emitted by some event past the Rindler horizon), you can see that this line can never touch the worldline of the accelerating observer either.
A-wal said:
Is your point that in the flat space-time example the observer who stays behind will never see the accelerating observer disappear despite the fact that no signal sent will ever reach them
The accelerating observer is the one who "stays behind" in the sense that he always stays on the right side of the Rindler horizon, never crossing it. If you draw a vertical line on the diagram above, representing the worldline of an inertial observer, you can see that this observer will cross the horizon at some point, and thus any event on the inertial observer's worldline that is on or past the Rindler horizon can never send a signal which will reach the accelerating the observer. Also, if you consider points on the inertial observer's worldline just before he crosses the Rindler horizon, and you draw 45 degree light rays from these points, you can see that they will take longer and longer to hit the worldline of the accelerating observer the closer they are to the Rindler horizon. So, the accelerating observer will never actually see the inertial observer cross the Rindler horizon, instead he'll see the image of the inertial observer going more and more slowly as the inertial observer approaches the Rindler horizon, the time dilation going to infinity as the inertial observer gets arbitrarily close to it.

The way to think of the analogy is this:

accelerating observer in flat spacetime, never crossing Rindler horizon <--> hovering observer in black hole spacetime, never crossing event horizon

(both feel a constant G-force, both are unable to see light from events on or past the horizon, both see objects appearing to get more and more time dilated as they approach the horizon)

inertial observer in flat spacetime <--> freefalling observer in black hole spacetime

(both feel zero G-force, both experience crossing the horizon in finite time according to their own clock)

If you're still having trouble understanding this I can take the above image and use a paint program to add the worldline of an inertial observer and light rays emanating from different points on his worldline, if that'd help. If you do understand, then hopefully you agree that the accelerating observer sees the time dilation of the inertial observer go to infinity as the inertial observer approaches the horizon, but that doesn't mean the inertial observer's time dilation is "really" going to infinity in any objective sense, from the perspective of his own clock (or from the perspective of the vertical time axis in the inertial frame that's being used to draw the diagram) it only takes finite time to cross the horizon. In that case, what would make you so sure the same couldn't be true for a black hole? (i.e. in spite of the fact that the hovering observer sees the time dilation of the falling observer go to infinity as the falling observer crosses the horizon, that doesn't mean the falling observer's time dilation is 'really' going to infinity in any objective sense, by his own clock it only takes a finite time to cross the horizon)
A-wal said:
This gives me an interesting thought. Acceleration can also be looked at as velocity relative to a non-constant c. Is that in any way meaningful or just complete bollocks? I can't tell any more. Too much having to find the words to define exactly what I'm getting at. Such a pain.
Doesn't really make sense to me either, you'd have to elaborate on what you mean. If you don't know how to define "what you're getting at", why are you always so sure there is a meaningful idea you're getting at? Do you deny the possibility that sometimes you might just have confused intuitions which don't actually have any well-defined meaning or aren't pointing you in the right direction? I think you'd get a lot further in understanding this stuff if you didn't have so much invested in the idea that all these intuitions of yours must be "on the right track" and the problem is just that it's hard to explain them, rather than admitting the possibility that some intuitions which seem to make sense to you on the surface might ultimately turn out to be confused or plain wrong.
 
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  • #207
DaleSpam said:
That is only because you are restricting your reasoning to Schwarzschild coordinates and Schwarzschild coordinates do not cover the event horizon. There is nothing wrong with common sense, logic, reason, or math, it is just that the coordinate chart ends before you get to the horizon.
Isn't that just another way of saying that space-time never reaches the horizon?

DaleSpam said:
By using a coordinate system that includes the event horizon and even points inside the event horizon.
You can't change reality by changing coordinate systems.

JesseM said:
There are only two basic types of "acceleration" I know of, acceleration relative to some coordinate system and proper acceleration which corresponds to the G-forces you feel (and also represents your coordinate acceleration in the local inertial frame where you are instantaneously at rest). Depending on the choice of coordinate system, any observer can have a coordinate acceleration of zero or a nonzero coordinate acceleration. But proper acceleration is more "objective", and a free-falling observer always experiences zero proper acceleration, while a hovering observer has nonzero proper acceleration (I don't know what you mean by 'not talking about the acceleration needed to resist gravity' though).

No idea what you mean by "analogous traveling at a greater relative velocity", or why that analogy would mean they don't feel they're accelerating.

None of that really makes sense to me. Proper acceleration is completely different from tidal force, a point particle can experience proper acceleration while tidal forces are felt by extended objects, you can think of them as being due to the fact that gravity isn't uniform so different parts of them are being pulled in different directions or with different proper accelerations (see the final animated gif in this article on the equivalence principle for example). And proper acceleration doesn't require "extremely strong gravitation", you can feel it when accelerating in the complete absence of gravity, or in any deviation from free-fall in a gravitational field
PeterDonis said:
I'll let JesseM weigh in as well, but I wanted to comment on this because it seems to me to be getting at a fundamental misconception you have. The acceleration of an observer hovering at constant radial coordinate r in Schwarzschild coordinates *is* "the acceleration needed to resist gravity", in the sense you mean. Since the observer is near a gravitating body, he has to accelerate--fire rockets, stand on the surface of a solid planet, etc.--to keep himself from falling towards it. That acceleration is also his "proper acceleration", and he feels it, just as you feel the 1 g acceleration caused by the surface of the Earth pushing up on you and keeping you from falling towards the Earth's center. So no, hovering at constant r in Schwarzschild coordinates is *not* "analogous to traveling at a greater relative velocity". They're fundamentally different things, because one observer (the one hovering at constant r) feels an acceleration, where the other (one just moving at a greater relative velocity, but still moving inertially) does not.

Tidal force is something different, and I don't think we should get into it until we have the other things we're discussing clear.
I know all that! A free-falling observer doesn't feel as though they're accelerating. A hovering observer feels the acceleration they're undergoing to resist being pulled closer. You feel your own weight on Earth is because you're undergoing proper acceleration because you're not moving closer to the centre of the Earth. I thought I'd said enough to show that I'm well aware of everything in that paragraph. Obviously not.

Two observers. One in a stronger gravitational field than the other but maintaining a constant distance between them (accelerating/hovering). The one in the stronger gravitational field is time dilated and length contracted from the perspective of the other one. Not because they're accelerating but just because they're in a stronger gravitational field. Constant acceleration is needed to maintain a constant distance between the two. So the gravitational pull is acceleration in the opposite direction to their proper acceleration in that sense, and if they're free-falling then they're moving into an area of higher gravitation/acceleration so they're accelerating at an ever increasing rate.

And I know what tidal force is. Why should we leave that for now? You can't feel gravitation because it effects the space-time that you're in and you get pulled along with it, but you can feel like you're accelerating when you're in free-fall if the increase in the strength of gravity is sharp enough as to produce greatly differing relative strengths within the same body. The part of you that's closer would literally pull the rest of you along and you'd feel that as acceleration. You feel less tidal force the bigger the black hole because if the gravity is spread over a greater area then it doesn't increase as sharply.

PeterDonis said:
I kind of thought I was telling one, but let me restate it with some more details filled in.
Adam/Eve sees whatever hardly qualifies as a story. Take me on an adventure. Stories also don't tend to have words like hyperbola in them. I don't even know what a bola looks like.

PeterDonis said:
Start with a global inertial frame; we'll use coordinates X, T to refer to the distance and time in that frame. (We'll leave out the other two spatial dimensions because they don't affect anything in this scenario.) In this frame we define the following objects and worldlines:

* A light beam is emitted from the origin of these coordinates in the positive X direction; therefore the worldline of that light beam is the line X = T.

* An observer, Eve, is in a rocket ship undergoing a constant proper acceleration (i.e., the acceleration she feels, would measure with an accelerometer, etc.) of a. At time T = 0 in the global inertial frame, she is at the X-coordinate s_0 = 1/a, and at that instant she is momentarily at rest in the global inertial frame. (All units are "geometric units" where the speed of light is 1.) Thus, Eve's worldline is the hyperbola X^2 - T^2 = s_0^2.

* At that same event where Eve is momentarily at rest in the global inertial frame (i.e., the event X = s_0, T = 0), another observer, Adam, drops off her rocket ship and follows an inertial (free-falling) path. Thus, Adam's worldline (for T >= 0) is simply the line X = s_0.

Now, given the above, we can make the following remarks. Note that all of these remarks are just simple deductions from the above; there's no mystery or complication about any of them.

(1) The light beam, T = X, will *never* catch up to Eve; i.e., it will never cross her worldline. This is what justifies the term "Rindler horizon" in reference to the light beam--Eve will never see it, nor will she ever receive any signals from events on the horizon, or in the region of spacetime on the other side of it from her worldline.

(2) Adam, however, will intersect the light beam T = X at the event (X = s_0, T = s_0). At that event, the light beam will appear to him to be moving outward (in the positive X-direction), at the speed of light, of course. This is what justifies us saying that the horizon is moving outward at the speed of light as seen by an observer freely falling past it.

(3) At any event (X, T) on Eve's worldline, we can draw a straight line through the origin (X = 0, T = 0) that intersects that event. Call this line L. Line L will have slope

\frac{T}{X} = \frac{ \sqrt{ X^{2} - s_{0}^{2} } }{X}

This slope gives Eve's velocity at that event, as measured in the global inertial frame. We can do a Lorentz transformation using this velocity to obtain the following:

(3a) Eve will perceive all the events lying on line L to be simultaneous with the event (X, T) where the line crosses her worldline--in other words, she will assign all events on this line a "time" by her clock equal to her proper time at the event (X, T) on her worldline.

(3b) The spatial distance along line L between the origin and the event (X, T) where it crosses Eve's worldline will be s_0. This is true for *every* event on Eve's worldline. Because the origin is on the horizon (the line X = T), this justifies us saying that, from Eve's point of view, the horizon is always a constant distance s_0 below her.

If you have any questions at all about the above, we should get them resolved before proceeding any further.
JesseM said:
Don't understand what you mean by "from a greater certain relative velocity", any event beyond the Rindler horizon will be unable to send light to the accelerating observer, the velocity of the object whose worldline the event lies on (i.e. the one emitting the light) doesn't matter. If you're familiar with the basic ideas of how inertial spacetime diagrams work in SR (time on vertical axis, space on horizontal, light worldlines always have a slope of 45 degrees, slower-than-light objects always have a slope closer to vertical than 45 degrees) then you can understand the Rindler horizon by looking at the diagram on this page:

ConstantAcc.gif


Here the diagonal 45-degree line is the Rindler horizon, the curved line is an observer with constant proper acceleration (constant G-force) whose worldline is a hyperbola that gets arbitrarily close to the diagonal line but never touches it. If you draw a dot anywhere to the left of the diagonal line, and draw a second 45-degree line emanating from that dot (representing light emitted by some event past the Rindler horizon), you can see that this line can never touch the worldline of the accelerating observer either.

The accelerating observer is the one who "stays behind" in the sense that he always stays on the right side of the Rindler horizon, never crossing it. If you draw a vertical line on the diagram above, representing the worldline of an inertial observer, you can see that this observer will cross the horizon at some point, and thus any event on the inertial observer's worldline that is on or past the Rindler horizon can never send a signal which will reach the accelerating the observer. Also, if you consider points on the inertial observer's worldline just before he crosses the Rindler horizon, and you draw 45 degree light rays from these points, you can see that they will take longer and longer to hit the worldline of the accelerating observer the closer they are to the Rindler horizon. So, the accelerating observer will never actually see the inertial observer cross the Rindler horizon, instead he'll see the image of the inertial observer going more and more slowly as the inertial observer approaches the Rindler horizon, the time dilation going to infinity as the inertial observer gets arbitrarily close to it.

The way to think of the analogy is this:

accelerating observer in flat spacetime, never crossing Rindler horizon <--> hovering observer in black hole spacetime, never crossing event horizon

(both feel a constant G-force, both are unable to see light from events on or past the horizon, both see objects appearing to get more and more time dilated as they approach the horizon)

inertial observer in flat spacetime <--> freefalling observer in black hole spacetime

(both feel zero G-force, both experience crossing the horizon in finite time according to their own clock)

If you're still having trouble understanding this I can take the above image and use a paint program to add the worldline of an inertial observer and light rays emanating from different points on his worldline, if that'd help. If you do understand, then hopefully you agree that the accelerating observer sees the time dilation of the inertial observer go to infinity as the inertial observer approaches the horizon, but that doesn't mean the inertial observer's time dilation is "really" going to infinity in any objective sense, from the perspective of his own clock (or from the perspective of the vertical time axis in the inertial frame that's being used to draw the diagram) it only takes finite time to cross the horizon. In that case, what would make you so sure the same couldn't be true for a black hole? (i.e. in spite of the fact that the hovering observer sees the time dilation of the falling observer go to infinity as the falling observer crosses the horizon, that doesn't mean the falling observer's time dilation is 'really' going to infinity in any objective sense, by his own clock it only takes a finite time to cross the horizon)
I meant that the speed of light isn’t constant to an accelerating observer. You could measure your acceleration as if it were a constant velocity relative to light. The Rindler horizon would happen when this velocity exceeds c.

PeterDonis said:
If this is just a comment, I agree it's amusing. But if you actually mean it to be an argument against the claim I'm making, then we need to go into more detail about what curvature means. The statement I made, that "the 2-sphere can have that area without having physical radius r", is no more mysterious or illogical than the statement, "a triangle drawn on the surface of the Earth can have three right angles, but still be a triangle"--i.e., it can be a triangle without the sum of the angles being 180 degrees. Would you agree with the latter statement?
:confused: It was just a comment.

JesseM said:
Doesn't really make sense to me either, you'd have to elaborate on what you mean. If you don't know how to define "what you're getting at", why are you always so sure there is a meaningful idea you're getting at? Do you deny the possibility that sometimes you might just have confused intuitions which don't actually have any well-defined meaning or aren't pointing you in the right direction? I think you'd get a lot further in understanding this stuff if you didn't have so much invested in the idea that all these intuitions of yours must be "on the right track" and the problem is just that it's hard to explain them, rather than admitting the possibility that some intuitions which seem to make sense to you on the surface might ultimately turn out to be confused or plain wrong.
You think I’m the one who needs to be more open-minded and willing to accept the possibility that I might be wrong? OMFG!


I don’t understand why an object that crosses a Rindler in flat space-time is analogous to the event horizon of a black hole. The Rindler horizon would be equivalent to a free-falling observer reaching the point at which no light from a more distant object will reach it before the black hole dies, unless the free-falling observer accelerates. The event horizon on the other hand marks the point at which nothing, not even light can reach before the black hole dies. Even if I'm wrong and it marks the point at which nothing, not even light can escape, then I still don't see how they're the same thing?
 
  • #208
A-wal said:
Isn't that just another way of saying that space-time never reaches the horizon?
No, that is another way of saying that the coordinate chart does not cover the entire manifold. Spacetime is the manifold (which includes the exterior, the event horizon, and the interior), not the coordinate chart (which covers only the exterior).

A-wal said:
You can't change reality by changing coordinate systems.
Therefore if your statement depends on the choice of coordinate system it does not reflect reality. All of your statements about something taking forever to reach the event horizon depend on the choice of Schwarzschild coordinates and therefore do not reflect reality by your own logic.
 
  • #209
A-wal said:
I know all that! A free-falling observer doesn't feel as though they're accelerating. A hovering observer feels the acceleration they're undergoing to resist being pulled closer. You feel your own weight on Earth is because you're undergoing proper acceleration because you're not moving closer to the centre of the Earth. I thought I'd said enough to show that I'm well aware of everything in that paragraph. Obviously not.

You say some things that make it seem like you are aware of it, but then you say other things that make it seem like you're not. For example:

A-wal said:
Two observers. One in a stronger gravitational field than the other but maintaining a constant distance between them (accelerating/hovering). The one in the stronger gravitational field is time dilated and length contracted from the perspective of the other one. Not because they're accelerating but just because they're in a stronger gravitational field. Constant acceleration is needed to maintain a constant distance between the two. So the gravitational pull is acceleration in the opposite direction to their proper acceleration in that sense, and if they're free-falling then they're moving into an area of higher gravitation/acceleration so they're accelerating at an ever increasing rate.

If they're free-falling, then *they're not accelerating*, because they don't *feel* any acceleration. It doesn't matter that, relative to a hovering observer (or an observer at rest on, say, the surface of the Earth), the free-falling observer *looks* like he's accelerating; what matters is which observer *feels* acceleration, because that's the real physical effect, which is invariant (i.e., it doesn't depend on what coordinates we use--which you have said is the definition of "real" you're using).

A-wal said:
And I know what tidal force is. Why should we leave that for now? You can't feel gravitation because it effects the space-time that you're in and you get pulled along with it, but you can feel like you're accelerating when you're in free-fall if the increase in the strength of gravity is sharp enough as to produce greatly differing relative strengths within the same body. The part of you that's closer would literally pull the rest of you along and you'd feel that as acceleration. You feel less tidal force the bigger the black hole because if the gravity is spread over a greater area then it doesn't increase as sharply.

No--once again, *if you're in free fall, you don't feel like you're accelerating*. Tidal "accelerations" apply to objects in free fall, and those objects do *not* feel any acceleration. To get into in what sense the term "tidal acceleration" *is* justified, relative to certain particular coordinate systems, is a whole different subject, which is why I said I wanted to table it for now.

A-wal said:
Adam/Eve sees whatever hardly qualifies as a story. Take me on an adventure. Stories also don't tend to have words like hyperbola in them. I don't even know what a bola looks like.

If what I said about Adam and Eve doesn't qualify as a "story", then I'm not sure what you want, or if what you want will qualify, from my point of view at least, as a physical "explanation" of what's going on. Explanations are not just stories.

A-wal said:
It was just a comment.

Sorry if I confused you, but as I noted above, you have made a number of statements which don't make sense to me when taken together (I've given some examples above), so I'm trying to understand the mental model you have of what's going on.

A-wal said:
I don’t understand why an object that crosses a Rindler in flat space-time is analogous to the event horizon of a black hole. The Rindler horizon would be equivalent to a free-falling observer reaching the point at which no light from a more distant object will reach it before the black hole dies, unless the free-falling observer accelerates. The event horizon on the other hand marks the point at which nothing, not even light can reach before the black hole dies. Even if I'm wrong and it marks the point at which nothing, not even light can escape, then I still don't see how they're the same thing?

What makes you think that "nothing, not even light can reach" the event horizon? Again, I don't understand the mental model that's leading you to that conclusion.
 
  • #210
DaleSpam said:
No, that is another way of saying that the coordinate chart does not cover the entire manifold. Spacetime is the manifold (which includes the exterior, the event horizon, and the interior), not the coordinate chart (which covers only the exterior).
An area that light can never reach from the outside is an area that nothing can reach.

DaleSpam said:
Therefore if your statement depends on the choice of coordinate system it does not reflect reality. All of your statements about something taking forever to reach the event horizon depend on the choice of Schwarzschild coordinates and therefore do not reflect reality by your own logic.
No, I said the choice of coordinate systems can't change reality. So by my logic they can't both be right. You can either reach the horizon or you can't, and I don't see how anything possibly could.

PeterDonis said:
If they're free-falling, then *they're not accelerating*, because they don't *feel* any acceleration. It doesn't matter that, relative to a hovering observer (or an observer at rest on, say, the surface of the Earth), the free-falling observer *looks* like he's accelerating; what matters is which observer *feels* acceleration, because that's the real physical effect, which is invariant (i.e., it doesn't depend on what coordinates we use--which you have said is the definition of "real" you're using).
I know! I didn't say proper acceleration.

PeterDonis said:
No--once again, *if you're in free fall, you don't feel like you're accelerating*. Tidal "accelerations" apply to objects in free fall, and those objects do *not* feel any acceleration. To get into in what sense the term "tidal acceleration" *is* justified, relative to certain particular coordinate systems, is a whole different subject, which is why I said I wanted to table it for now.
I KNOW you don't feel like you're accelerating when in free-fall! That's at least the third time I've had to say that. But in free-fall you do feel the difference of gravity between the closer parts and the further parts of your body to the centre of gravity. It's normally marginal but in the case of a black hole the gravity increases so sharply that it becomes noticeable, then painful, then very painful, then death. This seems like a pretty good description of tidal force. Are you saying it's something else entirely?

PeterDonis said:
If what I said about Adam and Eve doesn't qualify as a "story", then I'm not sure what you want, or if what you want will qualify, from my point of view at least, as a physical "explanation" of what's going on. Explanations are not just stories.
Never mind.

PeterDonis said:
Sorry if I confused you, but as I noted above, you have made a number of statements which don't make sense to me when taken together (I've given some examples above), so I'm trying to understand the mental model you have of what's going on.
Welcome to my world.

PeterDonis said:
What makes you think that "nothing, not even light can reach" the event horizon? Again, I don't understand the mental model that's leading you to that conclusion.
How about a game of let's pretend? Let's pretend that general relativity has just been released, by me, and it's my version where nothing can reach the event horizon. Presumably you'd know straight away that there's an error. Now the onus is on every one else to explain to me how an object can reach the event horizon. See how you like it.
 
  • #211
A-wal said:
I KNOW you don't feel like you're accelerating when in free-fall! That's at least the third time I've had to say that. But in free-fall you do feel the difference of gravity between the closer parts and the further parts of your body to the centre of gravity. It's normally marginal but in the case of a black hole the gravity increases so sharply that it becomes noticeable, then painful, then very painful, then death. This seems like a pretty good description of tidal force. Are you saying it's something else entirely?

It's a workable description of tidal force, with some caveats about what "the difference of gravity" actually means--I would prefer the term "tidal gravity" or even "spacetime curvature", but that's a minor point. The key is that what you've described above does not prevent objects from reaching or crossing the horizon. Tidal force is finite at the horizon (r = 2M), and below it all the way to the central singularity at r = 0; it only becomes infinite *at* r = 0.

A-wal said:
How about a game of let's pretend? Let's pretend that general relativity has just been released, by me, and it's my version where nothing can reach the event horizon. Presumably you'd know straight away that there's an error. Now the onus is on every one else to explain to me how an object can reach the event horizon. See how you like it.

This seems to be the game we're already playing.
 
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  • #212
A-wal said:
An area that light can never reach from the outside is an area that nothing can reach.
True, but light can reach the horizon and the interior from the exterior.

A-wal said:
No, I said the choice of coordinate systems can't change reality. So by my logic they can't both be right. You can either reach the horizon or you can't, and I don't see how anything possibly could.
Your logic is wrong. There are two kinds of statements that you can make:
(1) statements which depend on the choice of coordinates
(2) statements which do not depend on the choice of coordinates

Both coordinate systems can be right about statements of type (1) wrt themselves, and both coordinate systems will agree about statements of type (2).

For example, suppose I have two Newtonian coordinate systems where x=X+5. If the position of an object is X=3 then the statement that the position of the object is x=8 is also right. The change in coordinates changes the statement, but BOTH statements are right. The position of the object is a statement of type (1), and so by your premise statements of type (1) are not statements about "reality".

If the position of a second object is X=5 then the distance between the two objects is X2-X1 = 5-3 = 2. In the other coordinate system the position of the second object is x=10 and the distance between the two objects is x2-x1 = 10-8 = 2. The distance between the two objects is a statement of type (2), and so by your premise statements of type (2) are statements about "reality".

Your confusion is that you believe that "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" is a statement of type (2) when in fact it is a statement of type (1).
 
  • #213
PeterDonis said:
It's a workable description of tidal force, with some caveats about what "the difference of gravity" actually means--I would prefer the term "tidal gravity" or even "spacetime curvature", but that's a minor point. The key is that what you've described above does not prevent objects from reaching or crossing the horizon. Tidal force is finite at the horizon (r = 2M), and below it all the way to the central singularity at r = 0; it only becomes infinite *at* r = 0.
So you could look at someone in a stronger gravitational field as constantly accelerating (because the time dilation and length contraction associated with it would be the same as if they were constantly accelerating in flat space-time) and although they don't feel it, they feel the increase in the rate of acceleration and so in difference in gravity is felt as proper acceleration and therefore tidal force is just g-force. That's what I was getting at.

PeterDonis said:
This seems to be the game we're already playing.
If this were the game we were already playing then I'd be officially right until proven wrong and you'd have to actually show how the contradictions resolve themselves if you wanted to be taken seriously. That would be lush.

DaleSpam said:
True, but light can reach the horizon and the interior from the exterior.
How when no external object can reach the horizon from the exterior? External objects can only reach the horizon from the interior. That doesn't make sense to me.

PeterDonis said:
Your logic is wrong. There are two kinds of statements that you can make:
(1) statements which depend on the choice of coordinates
(2) statements which do not depend on the choice of coordinates

Both coordinate systems can be right about statements of type (1) wrt themselves, and both coordinate systems will agree about statements of type (2).

For example, suppose I have two Newtonian coordinate systems where x=X+5. If the position of an object is X=3 then the statement that the position of the object is x=8 is also right. The change in coordinates changes the statement, but BOTH statements are right. The position of the object is a statement of type (1), and so by your premise statements of type (1) are not statements about "reality".

If the position of a second object is X=5 then the distance between the two objects is X2-X1 = 5-3 = 2. In the other coordinate system the position of the second object is x=10 and the distance between the two objects is x2-x1 = 10-8 = 2. The distance between the two objects is a statement of type (2), and so by your premise statements of type (2) are statements about "reality".

Your confusion is that you believe that "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" is a statement of type (2) when in fact it is a statement of type (1).
I appreciate the replies and I know exactly what you're saying but it doesn't help me understand why "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" is a statement of type (1) rather than type (2). It's the same with your answers that say to just use a coordinate system that shows matter crossing the horizon. It's just saying it is that way because it is. My point is that I don't understand how any such coordinate system can reflect reality. I'm fine with two different coordinate systems giving two completely different answers as long as they don't contradict each other.
 
  • #214
A-wal said:
It's just saying it is that way because it is.
I don't believe that this is a fair characterization. I do not generally simply assert things and tell you to accept it because that is the way it is. I have tried over and over to give easier to understand analogies and examples. If you have not understood the analogies or examples that is one thing, but to claim that I am not attempting to teach and am simply asserting the result is misrepresenting me completely.

A-wal said:
I'm fine with two different coordinate systems giving two completely different answers as long as they don't contradict each other.
Do you understand how one coordinate system may contradict another as to the location of an event and yet both are correct? Refering to my earlier example, do you understand that x=8 and X=3 can both be correct although they disagree. If so then what is preventing you from understanding that T=infinity and t=t0 may both be correct?
 
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  • #215
A-wal said:
So you could look at someone in a stronger gravitational field as constantly accelerating (because the time dilation and length contraction associated with it would be the same as if they were constantly accelerating in flat space-time) and although they don't feel it, they feel the increase in the rate of acceleration and so in difference in gravity is felt as proper acceleration and therefore tidal force is just g-force. That's what I was getting at.

And this is *wrong*. Relative tidal acceleration (meaning, the relative acceleration of two objects, one of which is in a stronger gravitational field than the other--for example, closer to a black hole's horizon) is *not* the same as constant acceleration in flat spacetime; it's not even analogous to it; the two have no useful features in common. The difference in gravity (i.e., the relative tidal acceleration) is *not* felt as "proper acceleration" (more precisely, it isn't if the two objects are both free-falling; yes, if you take a single rigid object with enough radial extension to see the tidal force, the ends of the object will feel some force because the internal binding forces of the object are pulling them out of their natural free-fall paths, but that still is a very different phenomenon than the "constant acceleration" required to hover at a constant distance above the horizon). Tidal force is *not* just "g-force".

A-wal said:
I appreciate the replies and I know exactly what you're saying but it doesn't help me understand why "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" is a statement of type (1) rather than type (2). It's the same with your answers that say to just use a coordinate system that shows matter crossing the horizon. It's just saying it is that way because it is. My point is that I don't understand how any such coordinate system can reflect reality. I'm fine with two different coordinate systems giving two completely different answers as long as they don't contradict each other.

The quote you were responding to here was actually from DaleSpam, not me, but I'll respond anyway because I think this is an important point. A similar point came up in another thread, to which I responded in this post:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2957772&postcount=106

In the other thread we were discussing the point with reference to Rindler observers and the Rindler horizon, but the same point I made there applies here. Even though an observer far away from the black hole can't actually *see* a free-falling observer reach or cross the horizon, he can tell that there must be events on the free-falling observer's worldline that occur after the portion of the worldline that he can observe. How? By taking the formula for the free-falling observer's proper time, as a function of Schwarzschild coordinate time t (which is the time experienced by the observer very far away from the hole), integrating it out to t= infinity, and finding that the integral converges to a finite value--in other words, the free-falling observer experiences only a finite amount of proper time even when coordinate time t goes to infinity. Another way of expressing this is to say that the portion of the free-falling observer's worldline that the faraway observer can see has only a finite length, even when extended out to infinite coordinate time t.

But worldlines don't just stop at a finite length. *Something* has to happen to the free-falling observer after he has traversed the finite length of worldline that the faraway observer can see. He can't just cease to exist (for one thing, that would violate conservation of energy). The only possible explanation is that there is a further portion of the free-falling observer's worldline after the finite portion that the faraway observer can see. But the faraway observer has no way of assigning coordinates to that further portion, because he's already gone out to infinity in his coordinate time just to cover the finite portion he can see. This is what we mean when we say that the faraway observer's coordinates (the Schwarzschild exterior coordinates) "don't cover the entire manifold"--we can show that there *must* be another part of spacetime (the part where the free-falling observer's worldline goes) that simply can't be assigned coordinates in that system.

The above is why statements like "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" are statements of type (1): because the answer is only "infinite" (or "forever") with respect to Schwarzschild coordinate time t--it's *finite* with respect to the proper time of the falling object.
 
  • #216
DaleSpam said:
I don't believe that this is a fair characterization. I do not generally simply assert things and tell you to accept it because that is the way it is. I have tried over and over to give easier to understand analogies and examples. If you have not understood the analogies or examples that is one thing, but to claim that I am not attempting to teach and am simply asserting the result is misrepresenting me completely.
Don't take it so personally. It wasn't meant that way. I was referring just to the specific examples of saying that I need to use a coordinate system which includes the interior of the horizon and that I was making a coordinate dependant statement. Also, I really wish that it wasn't instantly assumed that because I question something it means I don't understand what I've just read.

DaleSpam said:
Do you understand how one coordinate system may contradict another as to the location of an event and yet both are correct? Refering to my earlier example, do you understand that x=8 and X=3 can both be correct although they disagree. If so then what is preventing you from understanding that T=infinity and t=t0 may both be correct?
Of course I understand that one coordinate system can give different results to another. That's basically what time dilation length contraction is. That doesn't mean that they contradict each other. If something happens then of course when and where it happens are relative. T=infinity and t=t0 on the other hand is a contradiction because one say it happens and the other says it doesn't.

PeterDonis said:
And this is *wrong*. Relative tidal acceleration (meaning, the relative acceleration of two objects, one of which is in a stronger gravitational field than the other--for example, closer to a black hole's horizon) is *not* the same as constant acceleration in flat spacetime; it's not even analogous to it; the two have no useful features in common. The difference in gravity (i.e., the relative tidal acceleration) is *not* felt as "proper acceleration" (more precisely, it isn't if the two objects are both free-falling; yes, if you take a single rigid object with enough radial extension to see the tidal force, the ends of the object will feel some force because the internal binding forces of the object are pulling them out of their natural free-fall paths, but that still is a very different phenomenon than the "constant acceleration" required to hover at a constant distance above the horizon). Tidal force is *not* just "g-force".
If you replace constant velocity with constant acceleration (so that an object undergoing constant acceleration feels no g-force) and just use an increase in acceleration rather than velocity to produce g-force then this isn't analogous to a distant observers perspective of a free-faller even though the free-faller doesn't feel as though they're accelerating but does feel the increase in acceleration. It seems very analogous.

PeterDonis said:
The quote you were responding to here was actually from DaleSpam, not me, but I'll respond anyway because I think this is an important point. A similar point came up in another thread, to which I responded in this post:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=2957772&postcount=106

In the other thread we were discussing the point with reference to Rindler observers and the Rindler horizon, but the same point I made there applies here. Even though an observer far away from the black hole can't actually *see* a free-falling observer reach or cross the horizon, he can tell that there must be events on the free-falling observer's worldline that occur after the portion of the worldline that he can observe. How? By taking the formula for the free-falling observer's proper time, as a function of Schwarzschild coordinate time t (which is the time experienced by the observer very far away from the hole), integrating it out to t= infinity, and finding that the integral converges to a finite value--in other words, the free-falling observer experiences only a finite amount of proper time even when coordinate time t goes to infinity. Another way of expressing this is to say that the portion of the free-falling observer's worldline that the faraway observer can see has only a finite length, even when extended out to infinite coordinate time t.
Yes, that's exactly *in* line with what I've *been* saying.

PeterDonis said:
But worldlines don't just stop at a finite length. *Something* has to happen to the free-falling observer after he has traversed the finite length of worldline that the faraway observer can see. He can't just cease to exist (for one thing, that would violate conservation of energy). The only possible explanation is that there is a further portion of the free-falling observer's worldline after the finite portion that the faraway observer can see. But the faraway observer has no way of assigning coordinates to that further portion, because he's already gone out to infinity in his coordinate time just to cover the finite portion he can see. This is what we mean when we say that the faraway observer's coordinates (the Schwarzschild exterior coordinates) "don't cover the entire manifold"--we can show that there *must* be another part of spacetime (the part where the free-falling observer's worldline goes) that simply can't be assigned coordinates in that system.
Show *me*. How can we can show that there *must* be another part of spacetime (the part where the free-falling observer's worldline goes) *that* simply can't be assigned coordinates in that system? The world line of an object heading towards a black hole is heading into an area of time-dilated and length contracted space relative to wherever they start from. So you can work *out* how long it looks like it's going to take you to reach the horizon but it will always take longer and longer the closer you get as time dilation extends the time it would take from the perspective *of* your starting position and length contraction increases the distance. As your falling in the clock at your previous position speeds *up* shortening the life span of the black hole. I can't see there ever being enough time*.*

PeterDonis said:
The above is why statements like "it takes forever for an object to reach the event horizon" are statements of type (1): because the answer is only "infinite" (or "forever") with respect to Schwarzschild coordinate time t--it's *finite* with respect to the proper time of the falling object.
Yes I know. How can the proper time of the falling object possibly be infinite anyway? That would need a black hole with infinite mass. What I don't understand is how any valid coordinate system can take you past the event horizon. You can plot a world line that goes into and back out of the black hole if you want to. It would take an infinite amount of energy to escape and an infinite amount of time to get to in the first place. That doesn't mean that I think there's an infinite amount of space-time around a black hole. That would be silly (but not as silly as assuming that objects can reach an area that's obviously not reachable:). I suppose you could define the space-time contraction/dilation as the speed of light from the edge of the horizon to you're current position*time. I don't see how there can be any space-time beyond the horizon. That's what makes it an event horizon.
 
  • #217
A-wal said:
I really wish that it wasn't instantly assumed that because I question something it means I don't understand what I've just read.
After more than 200 posts nobody is instantly assuming anything.

A-wal said:
T=infinity and t=t0 on the other hand is a contradiction because one say it happens and the other says it doesn't.
Do you understand the idea that a coordinate chart need not cover the entire manifold? If so, then I don't understand why you would consider this to be a contradiction.

Remember that a coordinate chart is a diffeomorphic mapping from an open subset U on a manifold to an open subset V in R(n). The most a single coordinate chart can say about the existence of a particular point on the manifold is whether or not it exists in U. In other words, while the existence of some point on the manifold is a coordinate-independent statement, whether or not that point has coordinates is a coordinate-dependent statement because it depends on whether or not the point is an element of U. So one chart says "it happens in my region of support, U" and another chart says "it does not happen in mine". There is no coordinate independent contradiction between these two statements.
 
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  • #218
A-wal said:
If you replace constant velocity with constant acceleration (so that an object undergoing constant acceleration feels no g-force) and just use an increase in acceleration rather than velocity to produce g-force then this isn't analogous to a distant observers perspective of a free-faller even though the free-faller doesn't feel as though they're accelerating but does feel the increase in acceleration. It seems very analogous.

If by "constant acceleration" you mean "constant acceleration with respect to a particular coordinate system", then I can make a kind of sense of this statement, but even then, "the free-faller doesn't feel as though they're accelerating but does feel the increase in acceleration" is self-contradictory as it stands. Either an observer feels a real acceleration or they don't; if they do, they're not free-falling. If by "feel the increase in acceleration" you mean "can observe an increasing separation from a neighboring free-faller, even though they feel no actual acceleration", that would be consistent, but I would not use the words "feel acceleration" in any form to describe a free-falling observer.

In any case, if you're just talking about "acceleration" relative to a particular coordinate system, that would be a statement of type 1 (by DaleSpam's categorization), and would not be relevant at all to the question of whether objects can reach or cross the event horizon, which involves statements of type 2.

A-wal said:
Show *me*. How can we can show that there *must* be another part of spacetime (the part where the free-falling observer's worldline goes) *that* simply can't be assigned coordinates in that system?

Take another look at this particular statement I made:

PeterDonis said:
But worldlines don't just stop at a finite length. *Something* has to happen to the free-falling observer after he has traversed the finite length of worldline that the faraway observer can see.

If the distant observer computes that the portion of the free-falling observer's worldline that he can see has a finite length, then he *has* to conclude that there is a further portion he can't see. The free-faller's worldline can't just stop at the end of the finite length. Do you agree with that statement? If you don't, then I think we need to dig further into the physics behind it, because this seems to me like a "fulcrum point" of the main question at issue.
 
  • #219
A-wal said:
The world line of an object heading towards a black hole is heading into an area of time-dilated and length contracted space relative to wherever they start from. So you can work *out* how long it looks like it's going to take you to reach the horizon but it will always take longer and longer the closer you get as time dilation extends the time it would take from the perspective *of* your starting position and length contraction increases the distance. As your falling in the clock at your previous position speeds *up* shortening the life span of the black hole. I can't see there ever being enough time*.*

To expand a little bit on my last post, I think you're missing the point of the "finite length" I'm referring to. The finite length of the free-falling observer's worldline prior to reaching the event horizon is an *invariant*--it's the same regardless of what coordinate system we use to compute it. It doesn't *change* as the free-falling observer gets closer to the horizon, because it's just an invariant geometric quantity, and those don't change: they're global properties of the spacetime (in this case, of a particular curve in the spacetime). Another way of putting this is that the computation of the finite length already accounts for all the length contraction and time dilation that will occur as the free-falling observer traverses that entire region. The computation of the finite length means that, even *after* all those effects are taken into account, the free-falling observer will experience only a finite amount of proper time before reaching the horizon.
 
  • #220
DaleSpam said:
Do you understand the idea that a coordinate chart need not cover the entire manifold?.
Yep.

DaleSpam said:
If so, then I don't understand why you would consider this to be a contradiction..
Because if you extend the coordinates then it still won't include beyond the horizon, no matter how much you extend it by. In other words there is no space-time beyond the horizon.

DaleSpam said:
Remember that a coordinate chart is a diffeomorphic mapping from an open subset U on a manifold to an open subset V in R(n). The most a single coordinate chart can say about the existence of a particular point on the manifold is whether or not it exists in U. In other words, while the existence of some point on the manifold is a coordinate-independent statement, whether or not that point has coordinates is a coordinate-dependent statement because it depends on whether or not the point is an element of U. So one chart says "it happens in my region of support, U" and another chart says "it does not happen in mine". There is no coordinate independent contradiction between these two statements.
The coordinate chart doesn’t include an area beyond the horizon, but you can still move into that area? How?

PeterDonis said:
If by "constant acceleration" you mean "constant acceleration with respect to a particular coordinate system", then I can make a kind of sense of this statement, but even then, "the free-faller doesn't feel as though they're accelerating but does feel the increase in acceleration" is self-contradictory as it stands. Either an observer feels a real acceleration or they don't; if they do, they're not free-falling. If by "feel the increase in acceleration" you mean "can observe an increasing separation from a neighboring free-faller, even though they feel no actual acceleration", that would be consistent, but I would not use the words "feel acceleration" in any form to describe a free-falling observer.

In any case, if you're just talking about "acceleration" relative to a particular coordinate system, that would be a statement of type 1 (by DaleSpam's categorization), and would not be relevant at all to the question of whether objects can reach or cross the event horizon, which involves statements of type 2.
They do feel it though. It's called tidal force. Take your example of the two free-fallers - "can observe an increasing separation from a neighboring free-faller, even though they feel no actual acceleration". The force that's increasing the space between them would break their atoms apart if it was strong enough. The same thing happens with normal acceleration. If the engine's too powerful it will break away from whatever it's attached to. Replace constant velocity with constant acceleration so that now constant acceleration isn't felt. An increase in the rate of acceleration would be felt as proper acceleration.

PeterDonis said:
Take another look at this particular statement I made:

If the distant observer computes that the portion of the free-falling observer's worldline that he can see has a finite length, then he *has* to conclude that there is a further portion he can't see. The free-faller's worldline can't just stop at the end of the finite length. Do you agree with that statement? If you don't, then I think we need to dig further into the physics behind it, because this seems to me like a "fulcrum point" of the main question at issue.
I do agree. The free-faller's worldline would of course be continuous but there would be no way of reaching a point on that world line that takes you past the horizon before the black hole's gone because the free-faller is slowing down through time and moving through ever more compressed space the closer they get. The further you go the harder it is to go the same distance. We've already covered that an object in free-fall will reach a point when a more distant object or a signal traveling at c wouldn’t be able to catch the closer object. If light can't even catch the closer object then no distant observer will ever reach a point when they cross the horizon because the further one can't reach the closer one and the closer one can't reach the horizon from the further ones perspective.

PeterDonis said:
To expand a little bit on my last post, I think you're missing the point of the "finite length" I'm referring to. The finite length of the free-falling observer's worldline prior to reaching the event horizon is an *invariant*--it's the same regardless of what coordinate system we use to compute it. It doesn't *change* as the free-falling observer gets closer to the horizon, because it's just an invariant geometric quantity, and those don't change: they're global properties of the spacetime (in this case, of a particular curve in the spacetime). Another way of putting this is that the computation of the finite length already accounts for all the length contraction and time dilation that will occur as the free-falling observer traverses that entire region. The computation of the finite length means that, even *after* all those effects are taken into account, the free-falling observer will experience only a finite amount of proper time before reaching the horizon.
And that finite amount of time should always be greater than the life span of the black hole because the black holes dimensions aren't an invariant geometric quantity.
 
  • #221
A-wal said:
Because if you extend the coordinates then it still won't include beyond the horizon, no matter how much you extend it by.
What do you mean by "extend the coordinates"? I am not certain, but I suspect that what you mean will result in a mapping which is not diffeomorphic and therefore not a valid coordinate system.

A-wal said:
In other words there is no space-time beyond the horizon.
You are incorrectly associating spacetime with the coordinate system instead of the manifold. See:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spacetime
http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9712019

If the manifold extends beyond the horizon then the spacetime does also (by definition) regardless of whether or not a specific coordinate chart does.

A-wal said:
The coordinate chart doesn’t include an area beyond the horizon, but you can still move into that area? How?
By using a different coordinate chart, or even by using a coordinate-free (aka component-free) treatment.
 
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  • #222
A-wal said:
They do feel it though. It's called tidal force. Take your example of the two free-fallers - "can observe an increasing separation from a neighboring free-faller, even though they feel no actual acceleration". The force that's increasing the space between them would break their atoms apart if it was strong enough. The same thing happens with normal acceleration. If the engine's too powerful it will break away from whatever it's attached to.

If the objects are freely falling, *there is no force on them*. If there is a force on them, *they are not freely falling*. The two nearby freely falling objects that observe increasing separation between them *are not connected*; that's how they can both be freely falling. If they were connected--if there were something holding them together that could be broken apart--then at least one of them could *not* be freely falling. (The simplest case would be if the common center of mass of both objects was freely falling, but that would still mean that most of the atoms in each object would *not* be freely falling--they *would* feel acceleration, even at the initial instant before any increase in separation had occurred.)

A-wal said:
Replace constant velocity with constant acceleration so that now constant acceleration isn't felt. An increase in the rate of acceleration would be felt as proper acceleration.

Constant acceleration (meaning, constant *proper* acceleration) *is* felt as acceleration, period. And that's the only kind of acceleration that would make your second statement true (as the rate of proper acceleration increases, the increase is *felt* as increasing acceleration).

If by "constant acceleration" you mean instead "constant acceleration relative to some particular coordinate system", then you can say it "isn't felt" if you adopt coordinates such that a freely falling object "appears" to be accelerating. But then your second statement in the quote above is false; an object can free-fall in a gravity field, with its coordinate acceleration continually increasing relative to, say, the Schwarzschild coordinates of a distant observer, and never feel any acceleration at all. For the relative "acceleration" of two nearby freely falling objects in this case, see my response above.

A-wal said:
And that finite amount of time should always be greater than the life span of the black hole because the black holes dimensions aren't an invariant geometric quantity.

Hmm...so what about the simpler case where the black hole lasts forever? (Which is what the Schwarzschild solution actually describes--the Hawking radiation that causes the black hole to eventually evaporate is a quantum effect, and we don't have a complete theory of quantum gravity that describes it; all we have are approximate models that *seem* to indicate that the black hole will evaporate in finite time. In General Relativity, leaving quantum effects out, the black hole is eternal.) In that case where the black hole lasts forever--call it an idealized case if you like--do you agree that the free-falling observer would reach the horizon, r = 2M, in a finite proper time? And that he would then *continue*, in a finite proper time by his clock, to the region of spacetime *below* the horizon, which the distant observer can't see?
 
  • #223
A-wal said:
And that finite amount of time should always be greater than the life span of the black hole because the black holes dimensions aren't an invariant geometric quantity.

Looking back through this thread, I see you've made statements along these lines before. Defining what is meant by "the black hole's dimensions" is problematic, because the black hole isn't really an "object"--it's part of the spacetime geometry. In so far as we can define physical "dimensions" for it, for example the circumference or area of the event horizon, those dimensions *are* invariant--the event horizon is an invariant, global feature of the spacetime geometry. You'll note that the formulas for these features of the event horizon don't include any coordinate-dependent variables--they all depend only on the mass M of the hole, which is an invariant.

Strictly speaking, what I just said applies to the "eternal" black hole of classical General Relativity, which never evaporates. As I said in my last post, we don't have a complete theory of quantum gravity, but the approximate models we do have indicate that the effect of evaporation, at least until almost all of the black hole's original mass has been radiated away (i.e., when the remaining mass of the hole approaches the Planck mass), is simply to make the mass M weakly time-dependent--slowly decreasing with time, as the Hawking radiation slowly carries away energy. Then, on time scales that are short compared to the time scale over which M changes (which is many orders of magnitude longer than the lifetime of the universe for a typical stellar-mass black hole), what I said above still applies--we can treat M as effectively constant. And we can also show that there are many possible worldlines for observers free-falling into the black hole that reach the horizon in a proper time that is also short compared to the time scale over which M changes--meaning that they reach the horizon long, long before the black hole evaporates. (And again, as I said before, all this is true *after* all the effects of time dilation and length contraction as you approach r = 2M have been taken into account in the computation of the finite proper time.)
 
  • #224
DaleSpam said:
What do you mean by "extend the coordinates"? I am not certain, but I suspect that what you mean will result in a mapping which is not diffeomorphic and therefore not a valid coordinate system.
Length contraction would allow you to lengthen the space between any hovering observer and the event horizon (from your perspective) by as much as you like if the black hole lasted forever, in exactly the same way as length contraction works with acceleration in flat space-time. Just keep getting closer. I'm not sure if that makes it diffeomorphic.

DaleSpam said:
You are incorrectly associating spacetime with the coordinate system instead of the manifold. See:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spacetime
http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9712019

If the manifold extends beyond the horizon then the spacetime does also (by definition) regardless of whether or not a specific coordinate chart does.
I get it. The manifold includes all of space-time but a coordinate chart doesn't necessarily, but the coordinate charts we're using cover all the space-time between a falling observer and the horizon and that should be all that's needed to describe what happens when approaching a black hole.

DaleSpam said:
By using a different coordinate chart, or even by using a coordinate-free (aka component-free) treatment.
Wouldn't you need at least a basic coordinate chart to see the distance between the faller and the horizon? Besides, the coordinate chart would include an ever increasing amount of space-time between the observer and the horizon due to length contraction and time dilation.

PeterDonis said:
If the objects are freely falling, *there is no force on them*. If there is a force on them, *they are not freely falling*. The two nearby freely falling objects that observe increasing separation between them *are not connected*; that's how they can both be freely falling. If they were connected--if there were something holding them together that could be broken apart--then at least one of them could *not* be freely falling. (The simplest case would be if the common center of mass of both objects was freely falling, but that would still mean that most of the atoms in each object would *not* be freely falling--they *would* feel acceleration, even at the initial instant before any increase in separation had occurred.)
Yes, I know and understand nearly all of that. There can be no true free-falling if you look at it like that because there'll always be more force on the side closest to the gravitational source pulling at the rest, even with a single atom. What I'm saying is that the difference in gravity can always be felt to some extent. That's tidal force and it's also proper acceleration, so tidal force is a form of proper acceleration. The bit I don't get from that paragraph is how the atoms within a falling object would feel acceleration even in the instant before they start to separate? Surely it's the separation that they feel?

PeterDonis said:
Constant acceleration (meaning, constant *proper* acceleration) *is* felt as acceleration, period. And that's the only kind of acceleration that would make your second statement true (as the rate of proper acceleration increases, the increase is *felt* as increasing acceleration).

If by "constant acceleration" you mean instead "constant acceleration relative to some particular coordinate system", then you can say it "isn't felt" if you adopt coordinates such that a freely falling object "appears" to be accelerating. But then your second statement in the quote above is false; an object can free-fall in a gravity field, with its coordinate acceleration continually increasing relative to, say, the Schwarzschild coordinates of a distant observer, and never feel any acceleration at all. For the relative "acceleration" of two nearby freely falling objects in this case, see my response above.
I meant that IF you couldn't feel constant acceleration then you would still feel the increase in acceleration AS proper acceleration. That what happens in free-fall, and an observer in free-fall accelerates relative to a more distant hovering observer even without taking into account the increase in acceleration as they fall. It's the equivalent to what I was saying about an object using constant acceleration to move at a constant velocity relative to a non-constant c. That's what made me think of it. I don't see how the Rindler horizon is equivalent to the event horizon though. The Rindler horizon would be the equivalent to a falling object reaching a point when a more distant observer can't catch the free-falling regardless of how fast the chasing object moves. That way it's an individual horizon depending on the two objects involved rather then "global" in the same way as the Rindler horizon. My version of the event horizon of a black hole isn't globally constant but it would depend entirely on distance rather than distance and relative velocity. In other words it wouldn't make any difference to the relative position of the event horizon if the observer accelerates, other than the fact that acceleration would influence the observers distance.

PeterDonis said:
Hmm...so what about the simpler case where the black hole lasts forever? (Which is what the Schwarzschild solution actually describes--the Hawking radiation that causes the black hole to eventually evaporate is a quantum effect, and we don't have a complete theory of quantum gravity that describes it; all we have are approximate models that *seem* to indicate that the black hole will evaporate in finite time. In General Relativity, leaving quantum effects out, the black hole is eternal.) In that case where the black hole lasts forever--call it an idealized case if you like--do you agree that the free-falling observer would reach the horizon, r = 2M, in a finite proper time? And that he would then *continue*, in a finite proper time by his clock, to the region of spacetime *below* the horizon, which the distant observer can't see?
Would a constantly accelerating observer ever reach c?

PeterDonis said:
Looking back through this thread, I see you've made statements along these lines before. Defining what is meant by "the black hole's dimensions" is problematic, because the black hole isn't really an "object"--it's part of the spacetime geometry. In so far as we can define physical "dimensions" for it, for example the circumference or area of the event horizon, those dimensions *are* invariant--the event horizon is an invariant, global feature of the spacetime geometry.
How can they possibly be invariant? Time dilation would have to shorten the length of time it exists for and length contraction would have to do the same thing to its size.

PeterDonis said:
You'll note that the formulas for these features of the event horizon don't include any coordinate-dependent variables--they all depend only on the mass M of the hole, which is an invariant.
Maybe that's why they're wrong then. :)

PeterDonis said:
Strictly speaking, what I just said applies to the "eternal" black hole of classical General Relativity, which never evaporates. As I said in my last post, we don't have a complete theory of quantum gravity, but the approximate models we do have indicate that the effect of evaporation, at least until almost all of the black hole's original mass has been radiated away (i.e., when the remaining mass of the hole approaches the Planck mass), is simply to make the mass M weakly time-dependent--slowly decreasing with time, as the Hawking radiation slowly carries away energy. Then, on time scales that are short compared to the time scale over which M changes (which is many orders of magnitude longer than the lifetime of the universe for a typical stellar-mass black hole), what I said above still applies--we can treat M as effectively constant. And we can also show that there are many possible worldlines for observers free-falling into the black hole that reach the horizon in a proper time that is also short compared to the time scale over which M changes--meaning that they reach the horizon long, long before the black hole evaporates. (And again, as I said before, all this is true *after* all the effects of time dilation and length contraction as you approach r = 2M have been taken into account in the computation of the finite proper time.)
After relative acceleration and the increase in the rate of acceleration as the observer falls have been taken into account? Are you sure?
 
  • #225
A-wal said:
Length contraction would allow you to lengthen the space between any hovering observer and the event horizon (from your perspective) by as much as you like if the black hole lasted forever, in exactly the same way as length contraction works with acceleration in flat space-time.

I don't know what you mean by this. The proper length from the horizon at r = 2M to a hovering observer at any r > 2M is finite, and gets shorter the closer r gets to 2M. The computation is similar to the computation that shows that the proper time for an observer to fall from any r > 2M to r = 2M is finite. This is also true for any accelerating observer in flat spacetime: the proper distance from the observer to the Rindler horizon is finite, and gets shorter as the acceleration gets larger.

A-wal said:
Yes, I know and understand nearly all of that. There can be no true free-falling if you look at it like that because there'll always be more force on the side closest to the gravitational source pulling at the rest, even with a single atom.

This gets into a separate issue, which is whether any real object can qualify as a "test body" in the idealized sense that is used in GR, meaning an object that is too small to feel any tidal forces, and also too small to have any effect on the spacetime geometry. I've been assuming that, for purposes of discussion, we were talking about "test bodies" in this sense, because it keeps things simple. A real object that does feel tidal forces can still free-fall through the horizon, but it's more complicated to describe it, and it doesn't add anything to the root question, which is how anything can free-fall through the horizon. I'm pretty sure you would say that even a "test body", an idealized point particle that feels no tidal force, could not reach the horizon, correct? If so, why bring all the complications of tidal force into it?

A-wal said:
The bit I don't get from that paragraph is how the atoms within a falling object would feel acceleration even in the instant before they start to separate? Surely it's the separation that they feel?

Any extended object that can be usefully treated as a single object (as opposed to just a cloud of separate particles that happen to be moving near each other) is held together by internal forces of some sort, such as the interatomic forces that hold atoms in their places in a solid body. So the parts of the object are always feeling some force; but in many cases we can separate out the motion of the object's center of mass and treat that as free-falling, geodesic motion. The parts of the object that are not at the center of mass would *not* be moving on geodesics in such a case; they would be on accelerated worldlines and would feel acceleration, which we would interpret as being caused by the internal forces on each part by the other parts. If such an object were also affected by tidal gravity, the parts away from the center of mass would feel some additional force due to the tidal gravity.

That's the kind of case I was describing, but as I noted just now, it's *not* the kind of case I think we should be discussing, because it brings in complications that don't affect the main question.

A-wal said:
How can they possibly be invariant? Time dilation would have to shorten the length of time it exists for and length contraction would have to do the same thing to its size.

Nope. Read carefully what I said: I said the *circumference* and *area* of the horizon are invariant. Those quantities are purely in the "angular" direction; they are not affected by the "length contraction" and "time dilation" that occur in the radial direction. In any case, you're mistaken about how the "length contraction" and "time dilation" work. I commented about the length contraction above. With time dilation, it's not true that it shortens the length of time that something exists. An accelerated observer hovering just above the horizon of a black hole still experiences an infinite amount of future proper time; there is a sense in which he "experiences it slower" than an observer far away from the hole, but that doesn't stop the total amount of his future proper time from being infinite. Infinite quantities don't behave like finite ones: you can divide an infinite number by a very large finite number and it will still be infinite.

A-wal said:
After relative acceleration and the increase in the rate of acceleration as the observer falls have been taken into account? Are you sure?

Yes, I'm sure. Do you want to go through the computation?
 
  • #226
A-wal said:
Length contraction would allow you to lengthen the space between any hovering observer and the event horizon (from your perspective) by as much as you like if the black hole lasted forever, in exactly the same way as length contraction works with acceleration in flat space-time. Just keep getting closer. I'm not sure if that makes it diffeomorphic.
Certainly, you could do that. It would amount to a remapping of your radial coordinate such that as the Schwarzschild radial coordinate approaches the Schwarzschild radius your remapped radial coordinate approaches -infinity. Such a coordinate transform would not change a coordinate dependent statement into a coordinate independent statement. Also, although you could write that transform for the Schwarzschild radius you can also write such a transform for any other arbitrary radius. JesseM did an example of exactly that in flat spacetime earlier during this thread.

A-wal said:
I get it. The manifold includes all of space-time but a coordinate chart doesn't necessarily, but the coordinate charts we're using cover all the space-time between a falling observer and the horizon and that should be all that's needed to describe what happens when approaching a black hole.
Yes, the Schwarzschild coordinates are all that's needed to describe what happens when approaching the event horizon. But not all that's needed to describe what happens when reaching or crossing the event horizon. And again, the presence of these coordinates do not change coordinate dependent statements into coordinate independent statements.

A-wal said:
Wouldn't you need at least a basic coordinate chart to see the distance between the faller and the horizon? Besides, the coordinate chart would include an ever increasing amount of space-time between the observer and the horizon due to length contraction and time dilation.
You do not need a coordinate chart to determine the proper distance between the faller and the horizon. That is a coordinate-independent geometric quantity, and it is finite.
 
  • #227
PeterDonis said:
I don't know what you mean by this. The proper length from the horizon at r = 2M to a hovering observer at any r > 2M is finite, and gets shorter the closer r gets to 2M. The computation is similar to the computation that shows that the proper time for an observer to fall from any r > 2M to r = 2M is finite. This is also true for any accelerating observer in flat spacetime: the proper distance from the observer to the Rindler horizon is finite, and gets shorter as the acceleration gets larger.
What I mean is that you can make a hovering observer change distance from the black hole from your perspective even if they're hovering from their own perspective, but you can never make them cross the horizon.

PeterDonis said:
This gets into a separate issue, which is whether any real object can qualify as a "test body" in the idealized sense that is used in GR, meaning an object that is too small to feel any tidal forces, and also too small to have any effect on the spacetime geometry. I've been assuming that, for purposes of discussion, we were talking about "test bodies" in this sense, because it keeps things simple. A real object that does feel tidal forces can still free-fall through the horizon, but it's more complicated to describe it, and it doesn't add anything to the root question, which is how anything can free-fall through the horizon. I'm pretty sure you would say that even a "test body", an idealized point particle that feels no tidal force, could not reach the horizon, correct? If so, why bring all the complications of tidal force into it?
Because it describes something important. Free-falling without tidal force is the equivalent to moving freely, while tidal force describes acceleration. You can plot a course and say there's enough proper time to reach the horizon before it dies, but I think it would change as you get closer. You'll have less and less time until it always reaches zero at the horizon, no matter how long the black hole lasts.

PeterDonis said:
Any extended object that can be usefully treated as a single object (as opposed to just a cloud of separate particles that happen to be moving near each other) is held together by internal forces of some sort, such as the interatomic forces that hold atoms in their places in a solid body. So the parts of the object are always feeling some force; but in many cases we can separate out the motion of the object's center of mass and treat that as free-falling, geodesic motion. The parts of the object that are not at the center of mass would *not* be moving on geodesics in such a case; they would be on accelerated worldlines and would feel acceleration, which we would interpret as being caused by the internal forces on each part by the other parts. If such an object were also affected by tidal gravity, the parts away from the center of mass would feel some additional force due to the tidal gravity.

That's the kind of case I was describing, but as I noted just now, it's *not* the kind of case I think we should be discussing, because it brings in complications that don't affect the main question.
You've lost me. "... would feel acceleration, which we would interpret as being caused by the internal forces on each part by the other parts. If such an object were also affected by tidal gravity..." Also affected by tidal gravity? Same thing isn't it?

PeterDonis said:
Nope. Read carefully what I said: I said the *circumference* and *area* of the horizon are invariant. Those quantities are purely in the "angular" direction; they are not affected by the "length contraction" and "time dilation" that occur in the radial direction. In any case, you're mistaken about how the "length contraction" and "time dilation" work. I commented about the length contraction above. With time dilation, it's not true that it shortens the length of time that something exists. An accelerated observer hovering just above the horizon of a black hole still experiences an infinite amount of future proper time; there is a sense in which he "experiences it slower" than an observer far away from the hole, but that doesn't stop the total amount of his future proper time from being infinite. Infinite quantities don't behave like finite ones: you can divide an infinite number by a very large finite number and it will still be infinite.
I know what you said. How can the *circumference* and *area* be invariant if they're not in the radial direction? How is it not true that time dilation shortens the length of time something exists? Length contraction would extend the length between the observer and the singularity, and therefore the distance between the observer and the rainbow horizon. The "experiences it slower" means that time dilation makes everything else speed up. It doesn't matter if an observers proper future time is infinite. I would dispute that, but it's besides the point. Even an observer with infinite potential future time will be unable to reach an event horizon in any given amount of finite time.

PeterDonis said:
Yes, I'm sure. Do you want to go through the computation?
Go on then, let's see it.

DaleSpam said:
Certainly, you could do that. It would amount to a remapping of your radial coordinate such that as the Schwarzschild radial coordinate approaches the Schwarzschild radius your remapped radial coordinate approaches -infinity. Such a coordinate transform would not change a coordinate dependent statement into a coordinate independent statement. Also, although you could write that transform for the Schwarzschild radius you can also write such a transform for any other arbitrary radius. JesseM did an example of exactly that in flat spacetime earlier during this thread.
If you say so.

DaleSpam said:
Yes, the Schwarzschild coordinates are all that's needed to describe what happens when approaching the event horizon. But not all that's needed to describe what happens when reaching or crossing the event horizon. And again, the presence of these coordinates do not change coordinate dependent statements into coordinate independent statements.
If everything is described correctly in the approuch then there shouldn't be a need to describe any crossing. It's impossible to reach the horizon in Schwarzschild coordinates.

DaleSpam said:
You do not need a coordinate chart to determine the proper distance between the faller and the horizon. That is a coordinate-independent geometric quantity, and it is finite.
Proper distance? Proper by definition is coordinate-independent isn't it? It's finite but not constant, and it will never be short enough. The distance would increase as you got closer. You know what I mean.
 
  • #228
A-wal said:
If everything is described correctly in the approuch then there shouldn't be a need to describe any crossing.
That is a weird comment. So if you were working a problem for a car crashing into a brick wall you would consider that as long as you described the approach correctly there wouldn't be a need to describe any collision?

A-wal said:
Proper distance? Proper by definition is coordinate-independent isn't it? It's finite but not constant, and it will never be short enough. The distance would increase as you got closer. You know what I mean.
No, it will decrease. You should work this problem, it is easy enough. Set theta to 0 and phi to 90 deg (or whatever is needed to make those terms drop out. You will then have an expression in t and r which you can integrate for constant t from r to r0 (the Schwarzschild radius).
 
  • #229
DaleSpam said:
That is a weird comment. So if you were working a problem for a car crashing into a brick wall you would consider that as long as you described the approach correctly there wouldn't be a need to describe any collision?
No. That's silly. But if the approach to the brick wall describes getting closer to the wall without ever reaching it then it obviously can't be reached.

DaleSpam said:
No, it will decrease. You should work this problem, it is easy enough. Set theta to 0 and phi to 90 deg (or whatever is needed to make those terms drop out. You will then have an expression in t and r which you can integrate for constant t from r to r0 (the Schwarzschild radius).
Decrease? Maybe you didn't know what I meant. The distance would be greater than if there were no length contraction, and the increase gets sharper the closer you get. Obviously it would never reach the point where you're going backwards. That would be extremely silly. It would just take more and more energy to cover the same distance. Of course that's from a hovering observers perspective of something else approaching the black hole. There would be more and more space to cover from the perspective of the approaching observer. Combine this with time dilation and there should always be too much space to cover in the time you have because you have less and less time to reach the horizon as you get closer.
 
  • #230
A-wal said:
Because it describes something important. Free-falling without tidal force is the equivalent to moving freely, while tidal force describes acceleration.

I *think* you're saying the same thing that I was saying in what you referred to here:

A-wal said:
You've lost me. "... would feel acceleration, which we would interpret as being caused by the internal forces on each part by the other parts. If such an object were also affected by tidal gravity..." Also affected by tidal gravity? Same thing isn't it?

However, I'm not sure, and it's irrelevant to the main point (whether or not a free-falling observer can cross the horizon). So for the time being, anyway, I'd like to table the whole issue of tidal "force". Let's assume for the time being that we are dealing with a black hole that is so large that the tidal gravity at the horizon is negligible. (We can do this because the tidal gravity at the horizon goes like 1 / M^{2}, so we can make the tidal gravity as small as we like by making M large enough.)

A-wal said:
You can plot a course and say there's enough proper time to reach the horizon before it dies, but I think it would change as you get closer.

The proper time along a particular curve in spacetime *doesn't change*--it's a geometric invariant. Saying it can change as you get closer to the horizon is like saying the distance from New York to Los Angeles can change while you're passing through Las Vegas. But instead of just repeating this, since you asked me to go through the computation, here it is. Once we've gone through it, I think a lot of your other questions will be easily answered.

(BTW, I'm basing this on Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler, Chapter 25, but you'll find similar calculations in just about any textbook on General Relativity.)

The general method we will use is as follows: we define a curve in spacetime along which we want to integrate the metric to obtain a "length"--either proper time elapsed for an observer who has that curve as his worldline (if the curve is timelike), or proper distance seen by an observer moving on a worldline orthogonal to the curve (if the curve is spacelike). We then write the metric in appropriate form, using the equation for the curve to reduce the number of integration variables to one. This will (hopefully) allow us to evaluate the integral.

For the case of proper time elapsed for a freely falling observer to reach the horizon from some radius R > 2M, we first define the curve along which we will do the integral as a purely radial curve, so theta = pi / 2 (this makes the math easiest) and phi = 0 all along the curve. We start at r = R (some value >> 2M) and t = 0. We end at t = infinity. (Minor technical point: I have idealized the curve we're using so that, strictly speaking, it is the worldline of an observer "falling in from rest at infinity"--that is, at any finite value of r, this worldline has a non-zero inward velocity. This doesn't change the essential conclusion--that an observer falling from any finite radius will reach r = 2M in a finite proper time--but it makes the calculation simpler.)

The key thing we need to complete the definition of the curve is a function r(t)--or t(r)--that will let us write everything in terms of a single coordinate. For a freely falling, purely radial curve, this function is implicitly given by the equation for the coordinate velocity:

\frac{dr}{dt} = - \sqrt{\frac{2M}{r}} \left( 1 - \frac{2M}{r} \right)

This let's us write the metric as follows:

d\tau^{2} = dt^{2} \left[ \left( 1 - \frac{2M}{r} \right) - \left( \frac{dr}{dt} \right)^{2} \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}} \right] = dt^{2} \left( 1 - \frac{2M}{r} \right)^{2}

which gives, on taking the square root and integrating,

\tau = \int_{0}^{\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{2M}{r} \right) dt

As it stands, this integral can't be evaluated, because we still have r in the integrand. To do the integral directly we would need to first solve the differential equation above in dr/dt (which is not at all straightforward) in order to get an explicit expression for r(t) to substitute into the integrand (which would still leave us with a very messy integral to do).

The usual way of dealing with this is to rewrite the integral in terms of dr, which makes it easy to evaluate. However, before doing this, we need to satisfy ourselves that as t -> infinity, r -> 2M. We can show this by noting two things about the equation above for dr / dt: first, dr / dt is negative for any r > 2M, so r will decrease with t until r = 2M is reached (i.e., for any finite value of t, if r > 2M, r will still be decreasing, so it will be closer to 2M at some larger finite value of t); second, as r -> 2M, dr / dt -> 0, so we don't expect r to actually reach 2M at any finite value of t (because the closer it gets, the slower it approaches), but only asymptotically as t -> infinity. (There's probably a slick mathematically way of proving this formally.)

Having shown that, we can invert the equation for dr / dt to obtain:

\frac{dt}{dr} = - \sqrt{\frac{r}{2M}} \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}}

We can then rewrite the metric as:

d\tau^{2} = dr^{2} \left[ \frac{r}{2M} \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}} - \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}} \right] = dr^{2} \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}} \left( \frac{r}{2M} - 1 \right) = dr^{2} \frac{r}{2M}

Taking the square root and integrating gives:

\tau = \int_{2M}^{R} \sqrt{\frac{r}{2M}} dr = \frac{2}{3 \sqrt{2M}} \left[ \left( R \right)^{\frac{3}{2}} - \left( 2M \right)^{\frac{3}{2}} \right]

This is often re-written to put all the variables in dimensionless form, which makes things look more elegant:

\frac{\tau}{2M} = \frac{2}{3} \left[ \left( \frac{R}{2M} \right)^{\frac{3}{2}} - 1 \right]

A-wal said:
I know what you said. How can the *circumference* and *area* be invariant if they're not in the radial direction? How is it not true that time dilation shortens the length of time something exists? Length contraction would extend the length between the observer and the singularity, and therefore the distance between the observer and the rainbow horizon. The "experiences it slower" means that time dilation makes everything else speed up. It doesn't matter if an observers proper future time is infinite. I would dispute that, but it's besides the point. Even an observer with infinite potential future time will be unable to reach an event horizon in any given amount of finite time.

Using the general method outlined above, here are the answers to the substantive questions you've raised. I'll take them in a somewhat different order from the order in which you raise them.

First, time dilation. Consider the following two curves: (A) r = some value close to 2M, theta = pi / 2, phi = 0, t = 0 to infinity; (B) r = some value much much larger than 2M, theta = pi / 2, phi = 0, t = 0 to infinity. Both of these curves have infinite "potential future time". However, if I pick any positive finite value of t (say t = 100), the proper time elapsed along curve A up to that value of t will be much less than the proper time elapsed along curve B up to that value of t. This is what we mean when we say that there is "time dilation" close to the horizon, and it's *all* we mean.

In particular, note that, for an infalling observer, the r coordinate is *not* constant, and (as we'll see below) the "lines of simultaneity" for the infalling observer are *not* the same as those for the hovering observer, so there's no straightforward way to say what event on the hovering observer's worldline "corresponds" to a given event on the infalling observer's worldline. This means that there's no straightforward way to assess the "time dilation" of the infalling observer relative to the hovering observer (or to one far away). In particular, as we've seen, the fact that there is a sense in which "time dilation becomes infinite" at the horizon does *not* imply that an infalling observer cannot reach the horizon in a finite proper time--he does.

Now consider a third curve: (C) t = 0, theta = pi / 2, phi = 0, r = R (some value > 2M) to 2M. This is a spacelike curve whose length is the "proper distance" from curve (A) to the horizon (as seen by a "hovering" observer--see below). The integral is similar to the one we did above: the only term in the metric that matters is the dr^{2} term, so we have:

s = \int_{2M}^{R} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{2M}{r}}} dr = \int_{2M}^{R} \sqrt{\frac{r}{r - 2M}} dr

This is not the sort of integral that one can do "by inspection" (at least, I can't), but that's what tables of integrals are for. :wink: Consulting one, we find that the indefinite integral is:

\left[ \sqrt{r \left( r - 2M \right)} + 2M ln \left( \sqrt{r} + \sqrt{r - 2M} \right) \right]

which we then have to evaluate from r = 2M to r = R. The 2M endpoint is simple since everything but one term is zero, and we end up with:

s = \sqrt{R \left( R - 2M \right)} + 2M ln \left( \sqrt{\frac{R}{2M}} + \sqrt{\frac{R}{2M} - 1} \right)

where we have used the fact that subtracting logarithms is the same as dividing the arguments. In dimensionless form, this becomes:

\frac{s}{2M} = \sqrt{\frac{R}{2M} \left( \frac{R}{2M} - 1 \right)} + ln \left( \sqrt{\frac{R}{2M}} + \sqrt{\frac{R}{2M} - 1} \right)

Armed with this, we can now investigate "length contraction". The answer we just derived was for a "line of simultaneity" in the frame of a hovering observer (which will also be a line of simultaneity for an observer very far away--in fact, for any observer who remains forever at a constant r coordinate; the only difference will be the specific value of R that we plug into the above formula). The line of simultaneity of an infalling observer will be different because that observer is changing his radial coordinate with time, and so the "proper distance" to the horizon seen by such an observer might also be different.

To calculate this, we need an equation for the line of simultaneity of the infalling observer. This will be a spacelike geodesic that is orthogonal to the infalling observer's worldline. We could laboriously write out an equation for that geodesic in Schwarzschild coordinates, but it's easier to transform to Painleve coordinates, in which the metric is:

ds^{2} = - \left( 1 - \frac{2M}{r} \right) dT^{2} + 2 \sqrt{\frac{2M}{r}} dT dr + dr^{2} + r^{2} \left( d\theta^{2} + sin^{2} \theta d\varphi^{2} \right)

where T is the "Painleve time" defined by

dT = dt - \sqrt{\frac{2M}{r}} \frac{1}{1 - \frac{2M}{r}} dr

In these coordinates, lines of constant T are the "lines of simultaneity" for the infalling observer, who moves on a worldline defined by

\frac{dr}{dT} = - \sqrt{\frac{2M}{r}}

This makes it easy to calculate the proper distance to the horizon from a radius R for the infalling observer; if dT = 0 (and also theta and phi are constant, as above), the metric is simply ds = dr[/tex], and we have<br /> <br /> s = R - 2M<br /> <br /> or, in dimensionless form,<br /> <br /> \frac{s}{2M} = \frac{R}{2M} - 1<br /> <br /> for the proper distance from radius R to the horizon at r = 2M. Note that this number is *smaller* than the proper distance for a hovering observer that we derived above. So the proper distance to the horizon *is* &quot;length contracted&quot; for an infalling observer. But, as we&#039;ve seen, the &quot;length contraction&quot; and &quot;time dilation&quot; do *not* imply that the infalling observer can&#039;t reach the horizon. (By the way, you can also use the Painleve metric to check that I did the proper time integral correctly above; just integrate the metric from r = R to r = 2M, using the equation for dr / dT, in inverted form, to write the integral in terms of dr. You should get the same answer I got above.)<br /> <br /> Finally, let&#039;s look at the circumference and area of the horizon. The circumference of the horizon, as seen by a &quot;hovering&quot; observer (any observer with a constant r coordinate), is simply the invariant length of the curve: r = 2M, t = constant (any value will do), theta = pi / 2 (as above, this value makes the math easiest since it makes a &quot;great circle&quot; around the horizon a curve where only phi varies), phi = 0 to 2 pi. Since only phi changes, the integral is easy: we can ignore every term in the metric except the d phi term, so we get:<br /> <br /> s = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} r sin \theta d\varphi = 4 \pi M.<br /> <br /> The area calculation is similar; we just need to vary theta from 0 to pi as well as phi over the range just given.<br /> <br /> What will this calculation look like for the infalling observer? It will be the same except that we look at a constant &quot;Painleve time&quot; T instead of a constant &quot;Schwarzschild time&quot; t. But, as we saw from the Painleve metric above, the r-coordinate is still a constant, 2M, in both cases. So the integral for the infalling observer *looks exactly the same* as the one for the hovering observer. The circumference of the horizon does *not* &quot;length contract&quot;. (Neither does the area, for the same reason.) Fundamentally, the circumference and area are the same for all observers because the r-coordinate of the horizon is the same for all observers.
 
  • #231
A-wal said:
No. That's silly. But if the approach to the brick wall describes getting closer to the wall without ever reaching it then it obviously can't be reached.
Xeno's paradox is exactly such a description.

In fact, you can make many coordinates which cannot approach a brick wall. If you have a standard inertial system t and x with a wall at x=0 then you could define a new coordinate system X=1/x or X=ln(x) both of which would never reach the brick wall.

A-wal said:
Decrease? Maybe you didn't know what I meant. The distance would be greater than if there were no length contraction, and the increase gets sharper the closer you get. Obviously it would never reach the point where you're going backwards. That would be extremely silly. It would just take more and more energy to cover the same distance. Of course that's from a hovering observers perspective of something else approaching the black hole. There would be more and more space to cover from the perspective of the approaching observer. Combine this with time dilation and there should always be too much space to cover in the time you have because you have less and less time to reach the horizon as you get closer.
If you understand that the proper distance is finite and the proper time is finite then what is the problem?
 
  • #232
PeterDonis said:
However, I'm not sure, and it's irrelevant to the main point (whether or not a free-falling observer can cross the horizon). So for the time being, anyway, I'd like to table the whole issue of tidal "force". Let's assume for the time being that we are dealing with a black hole that is so large that the tidal gravity at the horizon is negligible. (We can do this because the tidal gravity at the horizon goes like 1 / M^{2}, so we can make the tidal gravity as small as we like by making M large enough.)
Okay, bigger area means a gentler curve. It's a bigger curve though so the tidal force is just more spread out. It's still there and there's still just as much of it. You'll be undergoing less acceleration but it will start further out, so the total acceleration from flatish space-time to an event horizon will always be the same.

PeterDonis said:
The proper time along a particular curve in spacetime *doesn't change*--it's a geometric invariant.
What about an ever-sharpening curve though? The sharpness of the curve would be the equivalent to velocity (free-fall). The rate of change would be equivalent to acceleration (tidal force).

PeterDonis said:
Saying it can change as you get closer to the horizon is like saying the distance from New York to Los Angeles can change while you're passing through Las Vegas.
The distance from New York to Los Angeles would change while your passing though Las Vegas. It would depend on your velocity.

PeterDonis said:
But instead of just repeating this, since you asked me to go through the computation, here it is. Once we've gone through it, I think a lot of your other questions will be easily answered.

(BTW, I'm basing this on Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler, Chapter 25, but you'll find similar calculations in just about any textbook on General Relativity.)

The general method we will use is as follows: we define a curve in spacetime along which we want to integrate the metric to obtain a "length"--either proper time elapsed for an observer who has that curve as his worldline (if the curve is timelike), or proper distance seen by an observer moving on a worldline orthogonal to the curve (if the curve is spacelike). We then write the metric in appropriate form, using the equation for the curve to reduce the number of integration variables to one. This will (hopefully) allow us to evaluate the integral.

For the case of proper time elapsed for a freely falling observer to reach the horizon from some radius R > 2M, we first define the curve along which we will do the integral as a purely radial curve, so theta = pi / 2 (this makes the math easiest) and phi = 0 all along the curve. We start at r = R (some value >> 2M) and t = 0. We end at t = infinity. (Minor technical point: I have idealized the curve we're using so that, strictly speaking, it is the worldline of an observer "falling in from rest at infinity"--that is, at any finite value of r, this worldline has a non-zero inward velocity. This doesn't change the essential conclusion--that an observer falling from any finite radius will reach r = 2M in a finite proper time--but it makes the calculation simpler.)

The key thing we need to complete the definition of the curve is a function r(t)--or t(r)--that will let us write everything in terms of a single coordinate. For a freely falling, purely radial curve, this function is implicitly given by the equation for the coordinate velocity:

And so on.
Just as I suspected, pure gibberish. No wonder you lot are confused. Seriously though, I appreciate the effort but even if I were to spend the time necessary to be able to express it in that way, it would take me further away from understanding it. I would be able to define individual parts in detail but I'm not bothered about doing that. It's not worth it.

PeterDonis said:
What will this calculation look like for the infalling observer? It will be the same except that we look at a constant "Painleve time" T instead of a constant "Schwarzschild time" t. But, as we saw from the Painleve metric above, the r-coordinate is still a constant, 2M, in both cases. So the integral for the infalling observer *looks exactly the same* as the one for the hovering observer. The circumference of the horizon does *not* "length contract". (Neither does the area, for the same reason.) Fundamentally, the circumference and area are the same for all observers because the r-coordinate of the horizon is the same for all observers.
I don't see how it can be the same for all observers, sorry.

DaleSpam said:
Xeno's paradox is exactly such a description.

In fact, you can make many coordinates which cannot approach a brick wall. If you have a standard inertial system t and x with a wall at x=0 then you could define a new coordinate system X=1/x or X=ln(x) both of which would never reach the brick wall.
You need to pick one. Either the wall can be reached or it can't. I refuse to believe that reality can change depending on how you choose to measure it (quantum mechanics aside). That's basically the whole point of this thread.

DaleSpam said:
If you understand that the proper distance is finite and the proper time is finite then what is the problem?
Finite, yes. Not constant. If you were to measure the distance between yourself and a gravitational source to be one light year and there's a checkpoint half way between it and you then I would expect the distance to be more than half a light year if I traveled to the checkpoint and measured it again because it would now be in an area that was length contracted from my previous position. It's they only way it can make sense.


I think that you're describing free-fall when it can't actually exist. Normally it doesn't really matter because it's negligible. But in the case of approaching an event horizon I think it matters a lot. It's the same as the fact that the idealised "flat" space-time used in special relativity can't actually exist anywhere, other than maybe single points in just the right points of space-time.
 
  • #233
A-wal said:
No wonder you lot are confused.

I think it's a bit presumptuous of you to assume that we, not you, are the ones who are confused when you make statements like these:

A-wal said:
You'll be undergoing less acceleration but it will start further out, so the total acceleration from flatish space-time to an event horizon will always be the same.

What does "total acceleration...to an event horizon" even mean?

A-wal said:
What about an ever-sharpening curve though? The sharpness of the curve would be the equivalent to velocity (free-fall). The rate of change would be equivalent to acceleration (tidal force).

Tidal acceleration is *not* the same as the Newtonian acceleration due to gravity.

A-wal said:
The distance from New York to Los Angeles would change while your passing though Las Vegas. It would depend on your velocity.

But you claim later on that even when you're at rest the distance can change; see my comment further below.

A-wal said:
I don't see how it can be the same for all observers, sorry.

Then you don't have any basis for saying that we, not you, are confused. What you don't see is perfectly obvious, not just to the rest of us here, but to generations of researchers and students who have worked these problems. What I'm saying here is at about the same level of contentiousness, to the relativity community, as saying that water is H2O.

A-wal said:
Finite, yes. Not constant. If you were to measure the distance between yourself and a gravitational source to be one light year and there's a checkpoint half way between it and you then I would expect the distance to be more than half a light year if I traveled to the checkpoint and measured it again because it would now be in an area that was length contracted from my previous position. It's they only way it can make sense.

No, it doesn't make sense. You talked earlier on (in reference to the distance from NY to LA while passing through Las Vegas) as though the length contraction was due to velocity; but now you're saying that even if you're at rest relative to the checkpoint, the distance can change. *That* doesn't make sense.

A-wal said:
I think that you're describing free-fall when it can't actually exist. Normally it doesn't really matter because it's negligible. But in the case of approaching an event horizon I think it matters a lot. It's the same as the fact that the idealised "flat" space-time used in special relativity can't actually exist anywhere, other than maybe single points in just the right points of space-time.

Saying that spacetime isn't flat is *not* the same as saying that free-fall can't exist. Free fall is the natural condition of motion for most objects in the Universe. It's only strange folk like us who spend our existence on the surfaces of planets that think being under acceleration is "natural". The Moon is in free fall around the Earth. The Earth itself is in free fall around the Sun. The Sun is in free fall around the center of the galaxy. The galaxy as a whole is in free fall through the Universe. Asteroids, comets, orbiting satellites, etc., etc.--all in free fall. And all of these objects would still be in free fall, and would behave, physically, just as they do now, if they were freely falling through the horizon of a large black hole (large enough that tidal effects were negligible, as I said).

A-wal said:
Seriously though, I appreciate the effort but even if I were to spend the time necessary to be able to express it in that way, it would take me further away from understanding it. I would be able to define individual parts in detail but I'm not bothered about doing that. It's not worth it.

Well, you did ask me to post the computation. What I posted is, as I noted, entirely commonplace in relativity physics; many thousands of students have turned in homework problems containing computations similar to what I posted. Feynman once said that "to understand Nature, you must learn the language she speaks in," meaning mathematics.

That said, if you want a quick non-mathematical sketch of what the computation is telling us, here it is: yes, radial distances "stretch" and times "slow down" as you free-fall towards the horizon. But physically, they do *not* stretch infinitely or slow down infinitely for observers that are freely falling towards the hole. It *seems* like they do in Schwarzschild coordinates, but that is an illusion; and you can tell it's an illusion because even though Schwarzschild coordinate time goes to infinity as you approach the horizon, the path length of each little segment of your worldline (if you're freely falling towards the horizon) that is traversed in a constant interval of coordinate time dt goes to zero *faster* than the time t goes to infinity. (This is the same sort of thing that happens in the "Achilles and the tortoise" problem, which I think has been mentioned in this thread.) The result is a finite sum, meaning a finite path length from a finite radius r > 2M to the horizon at r = 2M.

The fact that Schwarzschild coordinate time goes to infinity over this finite path length tells us something else: Schwarzschild coordinate time is simply *not* a good time coordinate for observers falling into the hole. That's why other coordinate systems were invented to study the experience of such observers; for example, the Painleve coordinates, which I mentioned and gave a transformation for. Basically, Schwarzschild coordinate time as you approach the horizon at r = 2M behaves something like the tangent function, which goes to infinity at a finite value of its argument (pi/2). That doesn't mean the universe just stops at that finite value; it means we need to pick a better function to study that portion of spacetime.

But at least we all appear to agree on one thing:

A-wal said:
You need to pick one. Either the wall can be reached or it can't. I refuse to believe that reality can change depending on how you choose to measure it (quantum mechanics aside). That's basically the whole point of this thread.

I agree; it is. And what we're claiming the "reality" is ("we" who are having this discussion with you) has always been the same. The brick wall in DaleSpam's example *can* be reached, but, as he showed, by adopting an unsuitable coordinate system you can make it *appear* that it can't--but that's an illusion. Similarly, for a black hole, the horizon *can* be reached, and crossed. That's the physical reality. The observer far away can't *see* it being reached, but that is an illusion caused by adopting an unsuitable coordinate system.
 
  • #234
PeterDonis said:
The observer far away can't *see* it being reached, but that is an illusion caused by adopting an unsuitable coordinate system.

On re-reading, this was not a good choice of words. Let me try a better way of stating this point: the observer far away can't see the horizon being reached, but that is an illusion caused by the curvature of the spacetime and its effect on the paths of light rays.

To expand on this a bit (this may already have been discussed earlier in the thread, if so sorry for the repetition, but it bears repeating): suppose an observer freely falling towards the black hole emits light pulses radially outward at fixed intervals of his proper time (say once every second by his clock). An observer hovering at fixed radial coordinate r far away from the hole will see these light pulses arrive at gradually increasing time intervals by *his* clock (which, if he's far enough away, will basically tick at the same rate as Schwarzschild coordinate time). As the freely falling observer gets close to the horizon, his light pulses arrive at the hovering observer farther and farther apart (meaning, later and later in time--it takes longer and longer for them to get out to the hovering observer's location).

Finally, when the freely falling observer emits a light pulse exactly *on* the horizon as he falls through it, the pulse *stays* at the horizon forever--it *never* gets out to the hovering observer (or to any observer at r > 2M). So as far as the hovering observer is concerned, that light pulse "arrives" at infinite Schwarzschild coordinate time. But that isn't because the horizon isn't there or can't be reached; it's because spacetime is curved enough at the horizon to bend radially outgoing light paths into "vertical" lines--lines that stay at the same radius forever. Close to the horizon, but just outside it, the light paths are bent *almost* vertical, so they only get out to larger radii very slowly; as they get farther and farther away, the bending decreases, so their paths look more and more like the "usual" 45 degree lines that light rays travel on in flat spacetime.
 
  • #235
PeterDonis said:
I think it's a bit presumptuous of you to assume that we, not you, are the ones who are confused when you make statements like these:
Read the very next word.

PeterDonis said:
What does "total acceleration...to an event horizon" even mean?
Curvature increase=acceleration. Curvature increases slower with a higher mass black hole because it's more spread out, but that means you start acceleration sooner (from a greater distance). Same.

PeterDonis said:
Tidal acceleration is *not* the same as the Newtonian acceleration due to gravity.
Yes, I know, *again*. That's not what I meant. A curve that's constant would be free-fall. But that never happens. If your moving towards the gravitational source then the curvature is constantly increasing and it's that increase that causes the acceleration that's felt as tidal force.

PeterDonis said:
But you claim later on that even when you're at rest the distance can change; see my comment further below.
I didn't mean it would change while you're at rest.

PeterDonis said:
Then you don't have any basis for saying that we, not you, are confused. What you don't see is perfectly obvious, not just to the rest of us here, but to generations of researchers and students who have worked these problems. What I'm saying here is at about the same level of contentiousness, to the relativity community, as saying that water is H2O.
I'm an idiot, humour me. And I'm not a member of the "relativity community" so what's the problem? I didn't even know there was a secret club.

PeterDonis said:
No, it doesn't make sense. You talked earlier on (in reference to the distance from NY to LA while passing through Las Vegas) as though the length contraction was due to velocity; but now you're saying that even if you're at rest relative to the checkpoint, the distance can change. *That* doesn't make sense.
I was referring to special relativity when I said that the distance from New York to Los Angeles would change while you're passing though Las Vegas, depending on your velocity. Change compared to the first measurement, from a different location.

PeterDonis said:
Saying that spacetime isn't flat is *not* the same as saying that free-fall can't exist. Free fall is the natural condition of motion for most objects in the Universe. It's only strange folk like us who spend our existence on the surfaces of planets that think being under acceleration is "natural". The Moon is in free fall around the Earth. The Earth itself is in free fall around the Sun. The Sun is in free fall around the center of the galaxy. The galaxy as a whole is in free fall through the Universe. Asteroids, comets, orbiting satellites, etc., etc.--all in free fall. And all of these objects would still be in free fall, and would behave, physically, just as they do now, if they were freely falling through the horizon of a large black hole (large enough that tidal effects were negligible, as I said).
I meant that not only is space-time not flat, but the curvature is never constant, so every object will always be under some acceleration and so not really falling freely. Normally negligible, yes, but not in the case of an event horizon.

PeterDonis said:
Well, you did ask me to post the computation. What I posted is, as I noted, entirely commonplace in relativity physics; many thousands of students have turned in homework problems containing computations similar to what I posted.
Yea because they think they already know the final answer and then work backwards from there.

PeterDonis said:
Feynman once said that "to understand Nature, you must learn the language she speaks in," meaning mathematics.
Maths is just short hand, and it can't be misinterpreted like language. But it's meaningless unless you know what the symbols and values represent. Maths itself can't describe anything.

PeterDonis said:
That said, if you want a quick non-mathematical sketch of what the computation is telling us, here it is: yes, radial distances "stretch" and times "slow down" as you free-fall towards the horizon. But physically, they do *not* stretch infinitely or slow down infinitely for observers that are freely falling towards the hole. It *seems* like they do in Schwarzschild coordinates, but that is an illusion; and you can tell it's an illusion because even though Schwarzschild coordinate time goes to infinity as you approach the horizon, the path length of each little segment of your worldline (if you're freely falling towards the horizon) that is traversed in a constant interval of coordinate time dt goes to zero *faster* than the time t goes to infinity. (This is the same sort of thing that happens in the "Achilles and the tortoise" problem, which I think has been mentioned in this thread.) The result is a finite sum, meaning a finite path length from a finite radius r > 2M to the horizon at r = 2M.
I never said anything about stretching or slowing down infinitely. You would need a black hole with infinite mass for that. They shape of the world line would change. If you see ten units of space between you and the destination and the strength of gravity increases as you approach then if there was a checkpoint half way to the destination (from your original position) then there would be more than five lights between you and your final destination when you reach the checkpoint.

PeterDonis said:
The fact that Schwarzschild coordinate time goes to infinity over this finite path length tells us something else: Schwarzschild coordinate time is simply *not* a good time coordinate for observers falling into the hole. That's why other coordinate systems were invented to study the experience of such observers; for example, the Painleve coordinates, which I mentioned and gave a transformation for. Basically, Schwarzschild coordinate time as you approach the horizon at r = 2M behaves something like the tangent function, which goes to infinity at a finite value of its argument (pi/2). That doesn't mean the universe just stops at that finite value; it means we need to pick a better function to study that portion of spacetime.
I don't think the universe just stops. Is all the warping of space-time using Schwarzschild coordinates an illusion? A what point does it stop describing reality? You don't see the changing coordinate systems as moving the goal posts then?

PeterDonis said:
But at least we all appear to agree on one thing:

A-wal said:
You need to pick one. Either the wall can be reached or it can't. I refuse to believe that reality can change depending on how you choose to measure it (quantum mechanics aside). That's basically the whole point of this thread.

I agree; it is. And what we're claiming the "reality" is ("we" who are having this discussion with you) has always been the same. The brick wall in DaleSpam's example *can* be reached, but, as he showed, by adopting an unsuitable coordinate system you can make it *appear* that it can't--but that's an illusion. Similarly, for a black hole, the horizon *can* be reached, and crossed. That's the physical reality. The observer far away can't *see* it being reached, but that is an illusion caused by adopting an unsuitable coordinate system.
Without using length contraction/time dilation explain why the far away observer can't *see* the horizon being reached.
 
  • #236
PeterDonis said:
On re-reading, this was not a good choice of words. Let me try a better way of stating this point: the observer far away can't see the horizon being reached, but that is an illusion caused by the curvature of the spacetime and its effect on the paths of light rays.

To expand on this a bit (this may already have been discussed earlier in the thread, if so sorry for the repetition, but it bears repeating): suppose an observer freely falling towards the black hole emits light pulses radially outward at fixed intervals of his proper time (say once every second by his clock). An observer hovering at fixed radial coordinate r far away from the hole will see these light pulses arrive at gradually increasing time intervals by *his* clock (which, if he's far enough away, will basically tick at the same rate as Schwarzschild coordinate time). As the freely falling observer gets close to the horizon, his light pulses arrive at the hovering observer farther and farther apart (meaning, later and later in time--it takes longer and longer for them to get out to the hovering observer's location).

Finally, when the freely falling observer emits a light pulse exactly *on* the horizon as he falls through it, the pulse *stays* at the horizon forever--it *never* gets out to the hovering observer (or to any observer at r > 2M). So as far as the hovering observer is concerned, that light pulse "arrives" at infinite Schwarzschild coordinate time. But that isn't because the horizon isn't there or can't be reached; it's because spacetime is curved enough at the horizon to bend radially outgoing light paths into "vertical" lines--lines that stay at the same radius forever. Close to the horizon, but just outside it, the light paths are bent *almost* vertical, so they only get out to larger radii very slowly; as they get farther and farther away, the bending decreases, so their paths look more and more like the "usual" 45 degree lines that light rays travel on in flat spacetime.
I hadn't read that post when I wrote the posted my reply. Nice explanation. That's exactly how I see it so it still doesn't help me. If "spacetime is curved enough at the horizon to bend radially outgoing light paths into "vertical" lines" then it's curved enough to stop anything reaching the horizon in any given amount of time. The matter and light share the same space-time so you can't have one rule for one and another for the other (where time dilation and length contraction are concerned).
 
  • #237
A-wal said:
I hadn't read that post when I wrote the posted my reply. Nice explanation. That's exactly how I see it so it still doesn't help me. If "spacetime is curved enough at the horizon to bend radially outgoing light paths into "vertical" lines" then it's curved enough to stop anything reaching the horizon in any given amount of time. The matter and light share the same space-time so you can't have one rule for one and another for the other (where time dilation and length contraction are concerned).

Read what I said again, carefully. I said radially *outgoing* light paths are bent to vertical at the horizon. I didn't say anything about *ingoing* light paths being vertical. They are still ingoing, and there is still "room" between the ingoing and outgoing radial light paths for ingoing timelike worldlines.

Since you posted your previous post before reading what you quoted above, I won't comment on most of that previous post, but there are a few things in there that I still want to address:

A-wal said:
Yes, I know, *again*. That's not what I meant. A curve that's constant would be free-fall. But that never happens. If your moving towards the gravitational source then the curvature is constantly increasing and it's that increase that causes the acceleration that's felt as tidal force.

I see a couple of misconceptions here. The first is this: you say "A curve that's constant would be free-fall." I'm not sure what you mean by "constant", but I *think* you mean it as "straight" in the sense of what would be a "straight line" in flat, Minkowski spacetime. If so, your statement is false for curved spacetime; in fact that's the whole point of curved spacetime, that worldlines that we would call "curved" in an ordinary Newtonian sense (such as the worldline of an object falling towards the Earth under the influence of Earth's gravity alone, no other "forces" acting) are actually "straight" in the sense of (a) being freely falling--objects following these worldlines are weightless, they feel no acceleration--and (b) being geodesics of the curved spacetime, i.e., the closest thing to a "straight line" that you can have in a curved manifold.

The second misconception is one I've talked about before: tidal gravity does *not* necessarily have to be "felt" by objects as "tidal force". Two objects which are both in free fall can still be experiencing "tidal acceleration" relative to one another. Again, this happens because of the curvature of spacetime. Take two objects which, at some instant of time, are both at rest above the Earth, one slightly higher than the other. As both objects fall, their spatial separation in the radial direction will increase; this is due to the relative "tidal acceleration". However, both objects are freely falling--they are both weightless, and neither one feels any acceleration. (If you attached accelerometers to both objects, they would both read zero.)

I go into all this because later on, you say:

A-wal said:
I meant that not only is space-time not flat, but the curvature is never constant, so every object will always be under some acceleration and so not really falling freely. Normally negligible, yes, but not in the case of an event horizon.

This displays the same misconceptions I just described, and which may be getting in the way of your having a correct understanding of what happens at the event horizon. Once again, just to be clear: objects can *freely fall* through the event horizon, just as they can freely fall towards the Earth. If I start two objects at rest above the horizon, one slightly higher than the other, and then release them both, they will both freely fall through the horizon, and as they fall, their radial separation will increase, just as the two objects falling towards the Earth--but they will both be in free fall the whole time (attach accelerometers to both objects and they will both read zero).

I also wanted to comment on this:

A-wal said:
You don't see the changing coordinate systems as moving the goal posts then?

No, of course not. Is it "moving the goal posts" to use a map of the Earth drawn using a Mercator projection for one purpose, and then use a map drawn using stereographic projection for another purpose? Does changing the map change the actual, physical geometry of the Earth's surface? Of course not. Neither does changing the "map" one draws of events in spacetime--which is all a "coordinate system" really is--change the actual, physical geometry of spacetime. But different coordinate systems can be more or less suitable for different purposes; one coordinate system may "distort" a particular aspect of the geometry in a way that hinders understanding of some particular phenomenon.

For example, take the statement I made above, that while outgoing light rays are "bent to vertical" at the horizon, ingoing light rays are still ingoing. One of the reasons Schwarzschild coordinates are not suitable at or near the horizon is that they don't show this clearly; they distort the light cone structure near the horizon so much (actually, "infinitely much" at the horizon itself) that you can't clearly see the structure of the spacetime geometry. Switching to a more suitable coordinate system that doesn't have this distortion, such as Painleve coordinates (or ingoing Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates), can greatly clarify what's going on. But the actual, physical spacetime geometry is the same either way: outgoing light rays stay at r = 2M forever, ingoing light rays are still ingoing. It's just that Schwarzschild coordinates don't show it properly, just as a Mercator projection of the Earth doesn't show the North and South Poles properly.
 
  • #238
DrGreg said:
Film someone throwing a ball high in the air and then catching it when it falls. Then run the film backwards. Ignoring the throw and the catch, while the ball is in the air, can you tell if the film is going forwards or backwards?
Not sure if I miss the point but I reckon you can tell if you use two balls of different masses and apply the same force when you throw them.
If you let them fall from a height and released them at the same time they would hit the ground together and you would not be able to tell.
However if you threw them up in the air together, with the same force, the more massive one would hit the ground first.
 
  • #239
A-wal said:
You need to pick one. Either the wall can be reached or it can't. I refuse to believe that reality can change depending on how you choose to measure it (quantum mechanics aside). That's basically the whole point of this thread.
You clearly misunderstood; I posted that example as a reductio ad absurdum counterargument to your position. I am glad that you recognized that the argument is wrong in the case of a brick wall, but it is frustrating that even after more than 200 posts you don't realize that it is just as wrong in the case of an event horizon also.

Here are some incontrovertible mathematical facts:
1) the proper time along an infalling radial geodesic is finite in all coordinate systems
2) there are coordinate systems where the coordinate time is also finite
3) the Schwarzschild chart does not smoothly cover the event horizon
4) other coordinate charts do
5) the coordinate time is infinite in the Schwarzschild coordinates

Your position has been that because of 5) no observer can cross the event horizon despite 1)-4). In other words, your position is that an object cannot cross the horizon for no other reason than the fact that there exists some coordinate system where the coordinate time goes to infinity. If this logic were correct then it would apply to other coordinate systems in other spacetimes also, and therefore you would not be able to hit a brick wall because there exists some coordinate system where the coordinate time goes to infinity. This is your argument as you have described it here.
 
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  • #240
A-wal said:
I hadn't read that post when I wrote the posted my reply.
What the hell does that mean? I think I'm slightly dyslexic.

PeterDonis said:
Read what I said again, carefully. I said radially *outgoing* light paths are bent to vertical at the horizon. I didn't say anything about *ingoing* light paths being vertical. They are still ingoing, and there is still "room" between the ingoing and outgoing radial light paths for ingoing timelike worldlines.
As you travel into more and more length contracted/time dilated space you have to constantly recalculate the distance between you and the horizon (which will be non-linear and always greater than you'd expect it to be without the relative stuff) and the time the black hole lasts for in your proper time. The time it will take to reach the horizon will always go up (from a distant observers perspective) forever (or to any given time) as you get closer, until the black hole dies. It seems as if the black hole's life span has been shortend/accelerated for the free-faller. I don't know why the Schwarzschild coordinates are considered an illusion. Ingoing light is not slowed down. It's constant after all. It's time that's slowed down, by the acceleration.

PeterDonis said:
I see a couple of misconceptions here. The first is this: you say "A curve that's constant would be free-fall." I'm not sure what you mean by "constant", but I *think* you mean it as "straight" in the sense of what would be a "straight line" in flat, Minkowski spacetime. If so, your statement is false for curved spacetime; in fact that's the whole point of curved spacetime, that worldlines that we would call "curved" in an ordinary Newtonian sense (such as the worldline of an object falling towards the Earth under the influence of Earth's gravity alone, no other "forces" acting) are actually "straight" in the sense of (a) being freely falling--objects following these worldlines are weightless, they feel no acceleration--and (b) being geodesics of the curved spacetime, i.e., the closest thing to a "straight line" that you can have in a curved manifold.
No that's not what I meant. I know that free-fall is equivalent to being at rest (or moving freely I should say) as I've said before, but I think that tidal force acts as acceleration, meaning you can't have a straight line in free-fall. I was thinking of a curved line for free-fall before though, but from the perspective of a distant observer. A line that's curve is constant from this view would be the geodesics you're talking about. That curve would get sharper and sharper from this perspective as the object accelerates (not talking about accelerating up to terminal velocity because that's not true acceleration) while in free-fall. The falling object feels this acceleration as tidal force.

PeterDonis said:
The second misconception is one I've talked about before: tidal gravity does *not* necessarily have to be "felt" by objects as "tidal force". Two objects which are both in free fall can still be experiencing "tidal acceleration" relative to one another. Again, this happens because of the curvature of spacetime. Take two objects which, at some instant of time, are both at rest above the Earth, one slightly higher than the other. As both objects fall, their spatial separation in the radial direction will increase; this is due to the relative "tidal acceleration". However, both objects are freely falling--they are both weightless, and neither one feels any acceleration. (If you attached accelerometers to both objects, they would both read zero.)
Not with an sensitive enough accelerometer they wouldn't! How is tidal acceleration any different to tidal force? It's like if you accelerate two identical cars and give them both exactly the same amount of throttle, but one sets off just before the other. The first one to start will constantly pull away from the second one. Your example of tidal force is exactly the same accept it's strong enough to separate "solid objects". The front end of the object will be in length contracted/time dilated space-time relative to the back end. So the front will be trying to move faster than the back even though they both measure their own speeds to be the same, because the front thinks the back is moving too slowly and the back thinks the front is moving too quickly.

PeterDonis said:
This displays the same misconceptions I just described, and which may be getting in the way of your having a correct understanding of what happens at the event horizon. Once again, just to be clear: objects can *freely fall* through the event horizon, just as they can freely fall towards the Earth. If I start two objects at rest above the horizon, one slightly higher than the other, and then release them both, they will both freely fall through the horizon, and as they fall, their radial separation will increase, just as the two objects falling towards the Earth--but they will both be in free fall the whole time (attach accelerometers to both objects and they will both read zero).
I just meant that every object in free-fall has to be undergoing some tidal force. In fact, that covers every object.

PeterDonis said:
No, of course not. Is it "moving the goal posts" to use a map of the Earth drawn using a Mercator projection for one purpose, and then use a map drawn using stereographic projection for another purpose? Does changing the map change the actual, physical geometry of the Earth's surface? Of course not. Neither does changing the "map" one draws of events in spacetime--which is all a "coordinate system" really is--change the actual, physical geometry of spacetime. But different coordinate systems can be more or less suitable for different purposes; one coordinate system may "distort" a particular aspect of the geometry in a way that hinders understanding of some particular phenomenon.

For example, take the statement I made above, that while outgoing light rays are "bent to vertical" at the horizon, ingoing light rays are still ingoing. One of the reasons Schwarzschild coordinates are not suitable at or near the horizon is that they don't show this clearly; they distort the light cone structure near the horizon so much (actually, "infinitely much" at the horizon itself) that you can't clearly see the structure of the spacetime geometry. Switching to a more suitable coordinate system that doesn't have this distortion, such as Painleve coordinates (or ingoing Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates), can greatly clarify what's going on. But the actual, physical spacetime geometry is the same either way: outgoing light rays stay at r = 2M forever, ingoing light rays are still ingoing. It's just that Schwarzschild coordinates don't show it properly, just as a Mercator projection of the Earth doesn't show the North and South Poles properly.
Right, so the Schwarzschild coordinates are misleading and the time dilation and length contraction that the coordinates show are an illusion? Presumably it's always an illusion then, or does it suddenly become an illusion at the horizon?

Buckleymanor said:
Not sure if I miss the point but I reckon you can tell if you use two balls of different masses and apply the same force when you throw them.
If you let them fall from a height and released them at the same time they would hit the ground together and you would not be able to tell.
However if you threw them up in the air together, with the same force, the more massive one would hit the ground first.
Film two people, each throwing a ball high into the air and then catching them when they fall. Then run the film backwards. Ignoring the throws and the catches, while the balls are in the air, can you tell if the film is going forwards or backwards?

DaleSpam said:
You clearly misunderstood; I posted that example as a reductio ad absurdum counterargument to your position. I am glad that you recognized that the argument is wrong in the case of a brick wall, but it is frustrating that even after more than 200 posts you don't realize that it is just as wrong in the case of an event horizon also.
Define realize. Accepting what I'm told despite that it's still not how I see it? It's frustrating for me too. What exactly did I misunderstand?

DaleSpam said:
Here are some incontrovertible mathematical facts:
1) the proper time along an infalling radial geodesic is finite in all coordinate systems
2) there are coordinate systems where the coordinate time is also finite
3) the Schwarzschild chart does not smoothly cover the event horizon
4) other coordinate charts do
5) the coordinate time is infinite in the Schwarzschild coordinates

Your position has been that because of 5) no observer can cross the event horizon despite 1)-4). In other words, your position is that an object cannot cross the horizon for no other reason than the fact that there exists some coordinate system where the coordinate time goes to infinity. If this logic were correct then it would apply to other coordinate systems in other spacetimes also, and therefore you would not be able to hit a brick wall because there exists some coordinate system where the coordinate time goes to infinity. This is your argument as you have described it here.
LOL I hadn't even heard of this Schwarzschild bloke before he was mentioned here, and I'd never used a coordinite system before (you know what I mean). It's not a reason for me thinking anything. It describes how I thought of it before I even came here. 1). Agreed. 2). Agreed. 3). That's not very scientific. What do you actually mean by that? 4). Are those coordinate charts dynamic or fixed? They should change as you move to a gravitational field of different strength. Just like they change when you accelerate in flat space-time and move to a different frame. 5). Yea it would be.
 
  • #241
A-wal said:
As you travel into more and more length contracted/time dilated space you have to constantly recalculate the distance between you and the horizon (which will be non-linear and always greater than you'd expect it to be without the relative stuff) and the time the black hole lasts for in your proper time.

Nope, this is wrong. The calculation I posted already takes into account all the "length contraction" and "time dilation" that takes place as you fall to the horizon. There is no "recalculating" necessary. I think you are mistaking the frame-dependent effects of length contraction and time dilation with the frame-independent, invariant "length" of a given worldline in spacetime, which doesn't change when your frame of reference changes. The calculation I posted, of the finite proper time it takes to free-fall to the horizon from a given radius, is of the latter sort: it's a calculation of the invariant "length" of a given worldline and its result remains invariant regardless of the free-falling observer's state of motion.

This comment also applies to the next quote of yours below, but I have an additional comment about it as well:

A-wal said:
The time it will take to reach the horizon will always go up (from a distant observers perspective) forever (or to any given time) as you get closer, until the black hole dies.

As I noted quite a few posts ago, if you don't agree that the horizon can ever be reached for an "eternal" black hole that *doesn't* evaporate, then we're not even ready to discuss the case where the black hole *does* evaporate. I don't think you mean here to concede that the horizon of an "eternal", non-evaporating black hole *can* be reached, do you?

A-wal said:
I know that free-fall is equivalent to being at rest (or moving freely I should say) as I've said before, but I think that tidal force acts as acceleration, meaning you can't have a straight line in free-fall. I was thinking of a curved line for free-fall before though, but from the perspective of a distant observer. A line that's curve is constant from this view would be the geodesics you're talking about. That curve would get sharper and sharper from this perspective as the object accelerates (not talking about accelerating up to terminal velocity because that's not true acceleration) while in free-fall. The falling object feels this acceleration as tidal force.

A-wal said:
Not with an sensitive enough accelerometer they wouldn't!

Yes, they would. As I believe I've already noted, I think this misunderstanding on your part is a big factor in your misunderstanding of how a black hole horizon works. This claim of yours is *wrong*, pure and simple. Two freely falling objects that separate due to tidal gravity feel *zero* acceleration--not just "too small to measure without really sensitive instruments because Earth gravity is too weak", but *zero*. See next comment.

A-wal said:
It's like if you accelerate two identical cars and give them both exactly the same amount of throttle, but one sets off just before the other. The first one to start will constantly pull away from the second one. Your example of tidal force is exactly the same accept it's strong enough to separate "solid objects". The front end of the object will be in length contracted/time dilated space-time relative to the back end. So the front will be trying to move faster than the back even though they both measure their own speeds to be the same, because the front thinks the back is moving too slowly and the back thinks the front is moving too quickly.

Nope, this is wrong, the two cases are *not* the same; they are not even analogous. I'm not sure why you think the two cases are the same, so I'm not sure how to explain why they're not, except to say what I've been repeating for some time now, that freely falling objects separated by tidal gravity are *freely falling*. That means there is no rocket attached to them, nothing to push on them, nothing to exert force on them--whereas in your example, the two cars *are* being pushed, by the force on their wheels. Or, in the more usual example of the "Bell spaceship paradox", the two rockets are each firing their engines, which is why they feel acceleration. For the examples I gave of freely falling objects affected by tidal gravity, there is *nothing* analogous to the car engines/wheels or the rockets in the Bell spaceship paradox; these objects have no "propulsion" mechanism, hence they are freely falling. I'm not sure I can say much more until I understand how you can possibly see a physical similarity between objects in free fall and objects being accelerated by a rocket (or a car engine/wheel, or any other propulsion mechanism).

A-wal said:
Right, so the Schwarzschild coordinates are misleading and the time dilation and length contraction that the coordinates show are an illusion? Presumably it's always an illusion then, or does it suddenly become an illusion at the horizon?

The "distortion" of Schwarzschild coordinates gets larger the closer you get to the horizon, and becomes "infinite" *at* the horizon. Far enough away from the black hole, the distortion is negligible--it goes to zero at spatial infinity. The distortion on a coordinate chart does not have to be the same everywhere--for example, a Mercator projection gives zero distortion at the Earth's equator (I'm assuming the "standard" projection which is centered on the equator), and gradually increasing distortion as you get closer to the poles, going to infinite distortion *at* the poles.
 
  • #242
A-wal said:
Accepting what I'm told despite that it's still not how I see it? It's frustrating for me too.
You have had 3 or 4 people spending hundreds of posts and coming up with as many different ways to explain it to you as they could think of. You seem to be completely unwilling/unable to learn. You seem to think that you will never have to make any mental effort at all, that it is the responsibility of us and the universe to conform to how you see it, which is set in stone and immovable. Over the course of the years I have explained this stuff to many people, none of whom have been as unteachable as you, even people like Anamitra who were almost openly antagonistic to GR concepts.

A-wal said:
1). Agreed. 2). Agreed. 3). That's not very scientific. What do you actually mean by that? 4). Are those coordinate charts dynamic or fixed? They should change as you move to a gravitational field of different strength. Just like they change when you accelerate in flat space-time and move to a different frame. 5). Yea it would be.
Point 3) means that the Schwarzschild coordinates are not diffeomorphic at the event horizon so they do not include the event horizon. Given that you agree with points 1)-5) the only logical conclusion is that if you believe that you can reach the brick wall then you must concede that you can reach the event horizon also.

I would recommend that you leave off studying black holes and the Schwarzschild coordinates and instead learn about Rindler coordinates in flat spacetime. If you are interested in trying that as a new approach then start a new thread on the topic and I will try once again.
 
  • #243
DaleSpam said:
I would recommend that you leave off studying black holes and the Schwarzschild coordinates and instead learn about Rindler coordinates in flat spacetime.

I would add that doing this will also remove the confusion about tidal gravity, which is completely absent in flat spacetime. I've tried to remove it by specifying that we're talking about a black hole with a large enough mass that tidal gravity at the horizon is negligible, but it doesn't seem to have taken; perhaps seeing how there can be a horizon in completely flat spacetime, with no tidal effects at all, will help to separate these two distinct issues.
 
  • #244
A couple of facts about radial and stationary observers in the Schwarzschild solution that might help A-wal:
  • A free falling observer will observe no proper acceleration.
  • A free falling observer will observe inertial acceleration wrt the black hole (he would for instance observe that his velocity wrt stationary observers increases in time).
  • A stationary observer is an observer who neutralizes the inertial acceleration by using a proper acceleration in the opposite direction and has a zero velocity wrt the black hole.
  • A free falling observer will reach the event horizon and singularity in finite proper time (e.g. the time on his clock).
  • Two separated free falling observers will observe an inertial acceleration wrt each other. The magnitude is directly related to the amount of proper time removed from the singularity and is independent of the size of the black hole.
  • A free falling observer will observe a smaller distance to the event horizon than a co-located stationary observer.
  • Co-located free falling observers can have a non zero velocity wrt each other.
 
  • #245
Passionflower said:
[*]Two separated free falling observers will observe an inertial acceleration wrt each other. The magnitude is directly related to the amount of proper time removed from the singularity and is independent of the size of the black hole.
Interesting! I didn't know that one.
 
  • #246
Why is everyone so quick to assume that I've misunderstood what I've been told whenever I say something that goes against what you've been told? I've had my points misunderstood a lot more than anyone else (my fault for not being clear enough), but I am learning this as I go along. I may very well be missing something very important in my understanding, but if I am then I'm almost sure it's not something that's been pointed out to me yet. In fact I came in here with a vague idea and virtually everything I've been told has backed it up despite their intention to argue the opposite.

PeterDonis said:
Nope, this is wrong. The calculation I posted already takes into account all the "length contraction" and "time dilation" that takes place as you fall to the horizon. There is no "recalculating" necessary. I think you are mistaking the frame-dependent effects of length contraction and time dilation with the frame-independent, invariant "length" of a given worldline in spacetime, which doesn't change when your frame of reference changes. The calculation I posted, of the finite proper time it takes to free-fall to the horizon from a given radius, is of the latter sort: it's a calculation of the invariant "length" of a given worldline and its result remains invariant regardless of the free-falling observer's state of motion.
How can the calculation for proper time possibly be invariant (unaffected by further time dilation and length contraction) when it's a measurement of how much time something takes to cover a certain distance? Are you saying that the calculation you posted takes into account the fact that time dilation and length contraction increase as you get closer to the gravitational source? If you want to view your personal time and length (what you would call a worldline) as invariant then you have to view the space-time you're traveling through as variable. The spacetime between the faller and the black hole would have to contract more and more as you fall, making your invariant worldline vary in relation to the space-time between you and the horizon.

PeterDonis said:
As I noted quite a few posts ago, if you don't agree that the horizon can ever be reached for an "eternal" black hole that *doesn't* evaporate, then we're not even ready to discuss the case where the black hole *does* evaporate. I don't think you mean here to concede that the horizon of an "eternal", non-evaporating black hole *can* be reached, do you?
As I noted quite a few posts ago, the question of whether or not you can reach the horizon of an eternal black hole doesn't make sense. I'm saying that nothing can reach in any given amount of time. It's exactly the same as asking whether something that accelerates forever will reach c.

PeterDonis said:
Yes, they would. As I believe I've already noted, I think this misunderstanding on your part is a big factor in your misunderstanding of how a black hole horizon works. This claim of yours is *wrong*, pure and simple. Two freely falling objects that separate due to tidal gravity feel *zero* acceleration--not just "too small to measure without really sensitive instruments because Earth gravity is too weak", but *zero*. See next comment.
This simply cannot be! If they are separating due to tidal gravity then the objects are separating (or trying to) from themselves as well. The front of the objects are pulling the rest forward. That's acceleration.

PeterDonis said:
Nope, this is wrong, the two cases are *not* the same; they are not even analogous. I'm not sure why you think the two cases are the same, so I'm not sure how to explain why they're not, except to say what I've been repeating for some time now, that freely falling objects separated by tidal gravity are *freely falling*. That means there is no rocket attached to them, nothing to push on them, nothing to exert force on them--whereas in your example, the two cars *are* being pushed, by the force on their wheels. Or, in the more usual example of the "Bell spaceship paradox", the two rockets are each firing their engines, which is why they feel acceleration. For the examples I gave of freely falling objects affected by tidal gravity, there is *nothing* analogous to the car engines/wheels or the rockets in the Bell spaceship paradox; these objects have no "propulsion" mechanism, hence they are freely falling. I'm not sure I can say much more until I understand how you can possibly see a physical similarity between objects in free fall and objects being accelerated by a rocket (or a car engine/wheel, or any other propulsion mechanism).
They're not the same but how are they not analogous? Looking purely at the way the two objects move relative to each other, it's exactly the same.

PeterDonis said:
The "distortion" of Schwarzschild coordinates gets larger the closer you get to the horizon, and becomes "infinite" *at* the horizon. Far enough away from the black hole, the distortion is negligible--it goes to zero at spatial infinity. The distortion on a coordinate chart does not have to be the same everywhere--for example, a Mercator projection gives zero distortion at the Earth's equator (I'm assuming the "standard" projection which is centered on the equator), and gradually increasing distortion as you get closer to the poles, going to infinite distortion *at* the poles.
It looks distorted from a distance. If someone were to fly through a strong gravitational field and come back then you could presumably use the distortion of Schwarzschild coordinates to work out their proper time. It looked distorted to you but it didn't to them, you did. It seems like you lot are taking the Schwarzschild coordinates at face value when it suits you and looking at it as an illusion when it doesn't.

DaleSpam said:
You have had 3 or 4 people spending hundreds of posts and coming up with as many different ways to explain it to you as they could think of. You seem to be completely unwilling/unable to learn. You seem to think that you will never have to make any mental effort at all, that it is the responsibility of us and the universe to conform to how you see it, which is set in stone and immovable. Over the course of the years I have explained this stuff to many people, none of whom have been as unteachable as you, even people like Anamitra who were almost openly antagonistic to GR concepts.
:cry:

DaleSpam said:
Point 3) means that the Schwarzschild coordinates are not diffeomorphic at the event horizon so they do not include the event horizon. Given that you agree with points 1)-5) the only logical conclusion is that if you believe that you can reach the brick wall then you must concede that you can reach the event horizon also.
Only if the brick wall has no event horizon.

DaleSpam said:
I would recommend that you leave off studying black holes and the Schwarzschild coordinates and instead learn about Rindler coordinates in flat spacetime. If you are interested in trying that as a new approach then start a new thread on the topic and I will try once again.
PeterDonis said:
I would add that doing this will also remove the confusion about tidal gravity, which is completely absent in flat spacetime. I've tried to remove it by specifying that we're talking about a black hole with a large enough mass that tidal gravity at the horizon is negligible, but it doesn't seem to have taken; perhaps seeing how there can be a horizon in completely flat spacetime, with no tidal effects at all, will help to separate these two distinct issues.
I don't really see the point of starting a new thread for a single point. The Rindler horizon is the one thing I've actually looked up and as I understand it, it occurs when an object can no longer possibly catch an accelerating observer (assuming it keeps accelerating at the same rate of course). You can substitute acceleration for gravity and it seems to back up my point of view. There will be a point during an objects free-fall when an external object won't ever be able to catch the free-faller, no matter how much they accelerate. The horizon will obviously be further in than any of these objects from they perspective of an external observer. So the event horizon is uncatchable from any external perspective. It seems to me that an event horizon is a Rindler horizon that applies to everything outside it.
 
  • #247
Passionflower said:
A couple of facts about radial and stationary observers in the Schwarzschild solution that might help A-wal:
  • A free falling observer will observe no proper acceleration.
  • A free falling observer will observe inertial acceleration wrt the black hole (he would for instance observe that his velocity wrt stationary observers increases in time).
  • A stationary observer is an observer who neutralizes the inertial acceleration by using a proper acceleration in the opposite direction and has a zero velocity wrt the black hole.
  • A free falling observer will reach the event horizon and singularity in finite proper time (e.g. the time on his clock).
  • Two separated free falling observers will observe an inertial acceleration wrt each other. The magnitude is directly related to the amount of proper time removed from the singularity and is independent of the size of the black hole.
  • A free falling observer will observe a smaller distance to the event horizon than a co-located stationary observer.
  • Co-located free falling observers can have a non zero velocity wrt each other.
Thanks.



  • "A free falling observer will observe no proper acceleration."
They feel tidal force!


  • "A free falling observer will observe inertial acceleration wrt the black hole (he would for instance observe that his velocity wrt stationary observers increases in time)."
Of course. The way I look at there's no actual movement involved because it's the space between them that's affected rather than the objects themselves.


  • "A stationary observer is an observer who neutralizes the inertial acceleration by using a proper acceleration in the opposite direction and has a zero velocity wrt the black hole."
What I've been referring to as "hovering".


  • "A free falling observer will reach the event horizon and singularity in finite proper time (e.g. the time on his clock)."
How? Where does this postulate actually come from? If you work out how much time it would take from one position, then move closer and work it out again then you'll get a different answer. It takes more time the closer you get.


  • "Two separated free falling observers will observe an inertial acceleration wrt each other. The magnitude is directly related to the amount of proper time removed from the singularity and is independent of the size of the black hole."
Just like two accelerating cars, but apparently it's not the same, or even analogous.


  • "A free falling observer will observe a smaller distance to the event horizon than a co-located stationary observer."
Okay. That's special relativity isn't it? Because of their velocity relative to the black hole? I still don't ever see it reaching zero.


  • "Co-located free falling observers can have a non zero velocity wrt each other."
You mean if their initial velocities are different then they will remain different, and if they both start off hovering at the same distance then it would be zero?
 
  • #248
This responds to both of A-wal's recent posts:

A-wal said:
Why is everyone so quick to assume that I've misunderstood what I've been told whenever I say something that goes against what you've been told?

We're not assuming you've misunderstood; we're deducing it from the fact that you make statements that are factually incorrect, yet you assert that they are a necessary part of the picture as you understand it. See next comment.

A-wal said:
I may very well be missing something very important in my understanding, but if I am then I'm almost sure it's not something that's been pointed out to me yet.

I disagree with this as you've stated it; you've had several things pointed out to you that, IMO, include something important that you are missing. However, I would have to agree that no one has yet succeeded in stating what you are missing in the right way to let you see *how* you are missing it.

That said, there's at least one *factual* item that has come up several times now, which has been pointed out to you several times, yet which you continue to mis-state. It is this (from the 2nd of your two recent posts):

A-wal said:
  • "A free falling observer will observe no proper acceleration."
They feel tidal force!

Sorry to shout, but this has already been repeated to you several times: NO, THEY DO NOT FEEL ANY FORCE! This is a straightforward factual question to which you keep on giving the wrong answer. Once again:

A-wal said:
  • "Co-located free falling observers can have a non zero velocity wrt each other."
You mean if their initial velocities are different then they will remain different, and if they both start off hovering at the same distance then it would be zero?

Passionflower here is describing the same scenario I have described several times in this thread. Start with two objects, both at rest relative to a large massive body (e.g., the Earth or a black hole), at slightly different radial coordinates (one at r = R, the other at r = R + epsilon). Therefore both bodies also start out at rest relative to each other (zero relative velocity). Their spatial separation in the radial direction at time t = 0 is some value s (if the radial coordinate R is much larger than the Schwarzschild radius, s is very close to epsilon, but as R gets closer to 2M, ds gets larger for a given value of epsilon--but all that is irrelevant to what I'm about to say). At time t = 0, both objects are released and start freely falling towards the large massive body. As time t increases, the spatial separation between the bodies *increases* from the starting value of s (and therefore their relative velocity also becomes nonzero and increases), even though both objects, being freely falling, feel *no* acceleration (i.e., no "force", no stress, no weight, etc.).

If you don't agree or can't understand what I've just said, then we have a straightforward factual disagreement that we need to resolve before we can make progress on anything else. Part of your confusion may be because (as I've also pointed out before) you are confusing the scenario I just described with a *different* scenario, where you have a single extended body subject to tidal gravity; that is what you describe here:

A-wal said:
This simply cannot be! If they are separating due to tidal gravity then the objects are separating (or trying to) from themselves as well. The front of the objects are pulling the rest forward. That's acceleration.

The scenario I described above, with two freely falling objects separating spatially but feeling no force, idealizes both objects as single, point-like "test objects" with no internal structure. That allows us to focus on the fact that tidal gravity causes spatial separation of freely falling geodesics, without being confused by other effects due to the internal structure of objects. It's those other effects that you're referring to when you say that objects are "separating (or trying to) from themselves"--only extended objects with internal structure can do that. An extended object with internal structure *can* feel actual forces, internally, due to tidal gravity, but in that case the individual pieces that make up the body (its atoms, or whatever) are *not* all traveling on freely falling geodesic worldlines. This makes the situation much more complicated and difficult to analyze, without really adding anything to our understanding of tidal gravity itself. That's why we've tried to idealize the situation so it focuses solely on the effects of tidal gravity, without throwing in all the complications due to the internal structure of objects.

Until we get this issue resolved, I don't want to comment on most of the other things you've said, because we'll be coming from different and incompatible understandings of this fundamental point. However, there is one other thing you said that I do want to comment on, because you mentioned the Rindler horizon again:

A-wal said:
The Rindler horizon is the one thing I've actually looked up and as I understand it, it occurs when an object can no longer possibly catch an accelerating observer (assuming it keeps accelerating at the same rate of course). You can substitute acceleration for gravity and it seems to back up my point of view. There will be a point during an objects free-fall when an external object won't ever be able to catch the free-faller, no matter how much they accelerate.

You've mis-stated it slightly: the Rindler horizon is the path of a *light ray* that cannot catch up to an accelerating observer (provided they keep accelerating forever with the same proper acceleration). Also, you switched it around when you translated to "gravity" terms: the horizon of a black hole is the path of a light ray that can never "catch up" with any observer hovering at a radius r > 2M (the radius of the horizon). It has nothing to do with accelerating (hovering) observers being unable to catch free-falling observers.
 
  • #249
PeterDonis said:
An extended object with internal structure *can* feel actual forces, internally, due to tidal gravity, but in that case the individual pieces that make up the body (its atoms, or whatever) are *not* all traveling on freely falling geodesic worldlines.

Let me elaborate on this a little, so that it's clear what I have in mind. For reasons that will hopefully become clear in a moment, I'm going to start with *three* objects, starting at radius R (object A), R - b (object B), and R + c (object C), where b, c << R. The starting spatial separation between each adjacent pair of objects is s (so the separations A to B and A to C start out as s, and the separation B to C starts out as 2s)--note that this means that b will, in general, *not* be exactly equal to c (because of the radial change in the metric coefficient g_{rr}, meaning that the amount of radial coordinate change corresponding to a given proper length s is not exactly the same for b and c). However, the actual (proper) spatial separation is all we're concerned with here. All three objects start out at rest at time t = 0 (at rest relative to each other, and relative to the large mass M that the radial coordinates are relative to); at that time they are released and fall radially towards the large mass.

First consider the case where all three objects move freely, with no connection between them. Then each object's center of mass moves on a freely falling geodesic worldline (I say "center of mass" to eliminate any consideration of the internal structure of the objects--see below), so the spatial separation between A and B, and between A and C, will increase with time as they all fall radially.

Now consider a case where objects A and B, and A and C, are connected by springs. This means we can consider all three together as one large "object" O, with internal parts that can exert forces on each other. Each spring has an equilibrium proper length s, so at time t = 0, when all three objects are at rest, both springs are in equilibrium and there is no force anywhere in the system. The (rest) masses of all three objects, A, B, and C, are equal, and the masses of the springs are equal too, so object A is at the center of mass of the whole extended object O at time t = 0; and because O is exactly symmetrical in the radial direction, A will remain at the center of mass of O for all time.

How will O move? At time t = 0, again, everything is released to fall freely in the radial direction. Because A is at the center of mass, it will follow the same geodesic worldline as it followed in the previous case, when there were no springs. However, objects B and C will *not* follow the same worldlines as before; they will not follow geodesics, because as they move, the tidal gravity will start to stretch the springs, which will pull back on B and C and cause them to stay closer to A than they would if the springs weren't there. That means objects B and C will feel a net proper acceleration; but the proper accelerations will be *towards* object A in both cases. So there will be an equilibrium configuration of this extended object O, in which the center of mass (A) falls on a radial geodesic, but the ends (B and C) are accelerated; B will be accelerated radially outward (towards A), while C will be accelerated radially *inward* (towards A). B and C will then, in this equilibrium, maintain a constant spatial separation from A, which will be somewhat larger than s (because the springs need to be stretched in order to exert the force towards A that accounts for the net proper acceleration of B and C).

What about object A? How can it fall on a geodesic worldline when the springs are exerting force on it? It is true that there will be a nonzero *stress* at A due to the springs, but since the spring forces at A are equal and opposite, there is no *net* force on A, so there is no *net* proper acceleration, and A moves on a freely falling geodesic worldline. So the whole extended object O moves such that its center of mass follows a freely falling geodesic, but its other internal parts do not because of the internal forces set up by tidal gravity. This is the sort of thing I was talking about when I referred to the complications due to the internal structure of objects. All these internal forces, though, do not add anything to our understanding of how tidal gravity works: we can understand that solely by looking at the motion of the center of mass, A, [edit] and comparing it with the motion of the center of mass of other objects that are radially separated and do not exchange any interaction forces with A [/edit].

(Incidentally, the above also shows why the "acceleration" due to tidal gravity, for an extended object with internal structure, is *not* the same as the acceleration required to hover over a black hole or other large mass. The "hovering" proper acceleration is always radially outward, and it applies at the center of mass of the object--it applies even to an idealized point-like "test object" with no internal structure, and it causes the center of mass of the object to move on a non-geodesic worldline. The radial proper acceleration of internal parts of an extended object due to tidal gravity is always towards the center of mass, which can be radially outward or inward depending on the location of the part relative to the center of mass; and *at* the center of mass, the proper acceleration due to tidal gravity is zero, so the CoM always moves on a freely falling geodesic.)
 
Last edited:
  • #250
PeterDonis said:
Sorry to shout, but this has already been repeated to you several times: NO, THEY DO NOT FEEL ANY FORCE! This is a straightforward factual question to which you keep on giving the wrong answer. Once again:

Passionflower here is describing the same scenario I have described several times in this thread. Start with two objects, both at rest relative to a large massive body (e.g., the Earth or a black hole), at slightly different radial coordinates (one at r = R, the other at r = R + epsilon). Therefore both bodies also start out at rest relative to each other (zero relative velocity). Their spatial separation in the radial direction at time t = 0 is some value s (if the radial coordinate R is much larger than the Schwarzschild radius, s is very close to epsilon, but as R gets closer to 2M, ds gets larger for a given value of epsilon--but all that is irrelevant to what I'm about to say). At time t = 0, both objects are released and start freely falling towards the large massive body. As time t increases, the spatial separation between the bodies *increases* from the starting value of s (and therefore their relative velocity also becomes nonzero and increases), even though both objects, being freely falling, feel *no* acceleration (i.e., no "force", no stress, no weight, etc.).
"You mean if their initial velocities are different then they will remain different, and if they both start off hovering at the same distance then it would be zero?" was right than. What's epsilon?

PeterDonis said:
If you don't agree or can't understand what I've just said, then we have a straightforward factual disagreement that we need to resolve before we can make progress on anything else. Part of your confusion may be because (as I've also pointed out before) you are confusing the scenario I just described with a *different* scenario, where you have a single extended body subject to tidal gravity; that is what you describe here:

The scenario I described above, with two freely falling objects separating spatially but feeling no force, idealizes both objects as single, point-like "test objects" with no internal structure. That allows us to focus on the fact that tidal gravity causes spatial separation of freely falling geodesics, without being confused by other effects due to the internal structure of objects. It's those other effects that you're referring to when you say that objects are "separating (or trying to) from themselves"--only extended objects with internal structure can do that. An extended object with internal structure *can* feel actual forces, internally, due to tidal gravity, but in that case the individual pieces that make up the body (its atoms, or whatever) are *not* all traveling on freely falling geodesic worldlines. This makes the situation much more complicated and difficult to analyze, without really adding anything to our understanding of tidal gravity itself. That's why we've tried to idealize the situation so it focuses solely on the effects of tidal gravity, without throwing in all the complications due to the internal structure of objects.

Until we get this issue resolved, I don't want to comment on most of the other things you've said, because we'll be coming from different and incompatible understandings of this fundamental point. However, there is one other thing you said that I do want to comment on, because you mentioned the Rindler horizon again:
I'm not sure there's anything to resolve here. I've already stated that the only time tidal force wouldn't apply is to a point-like object.

PeterDonis said:
You've mis-stated it slightly: the Rindler horizon is the path of a *light ray* that cannot catch up to an accelerating observer (provided they keep accelerating forever with the same proper acceleration). Also, you switched it around when you translated to "gravity" terms: the horizon of a black hole is the path of a light ray that can never "catch up" with any observer hovering at a radius r > 2M (the radius of the horizon). It has nothing to do with accelerating (hovering) observers being unable to catch free-falling observers.
Same thing isn't it? If a light ray can reach the horizon then nothing can.

PeterDonis said:
Let me elaborate on this a little, so that it's clear what I have in mind.
I appreciate the depth of the response but I already get all that and it doesn't have anything to do with what I'm trying to get across. I don't believe that an object can even accelerate into a black hole, but I'm being told that it doesn't even have to accelerate, it can free-fall in. I'm thinking tidal force could be the answer. Imagine a very long object free-falling towards a black hole. It's at an angle so that (if we ignore length contraction for a moment) if it's ten metres long then the back will be ten metres further from the black hole than the front. There has to be an easier way of explaining that. There's probably a single word that describes that angle. Anyway, the front will be pulling the back along, even though the front is just trying to free-fall. What's free-fall speed at the front isn't the same as what's free-fall speed at the back. The difference is caused by the fact that the front end is more time dilated/length contracted than the back. From the backs perspective the front is accelerating, so objects closer than whoever's observing them do accelerate from that observers perspective. In other words objects do accelerate when they free-fall. As they accelerate they become time dilated/length contracted and the rest of the universe (including the life span of the black hole) appears to speed up. Anything at the event horizon would, in effect, have accelerated to c. I don't see how a free-faller could gradually reach infinite time dilation/length contraction. It doesn't matter how long the black hole lasts because they journey inwards would always last longer. I think tidal force comes from the fact that you can't assign a set proper time or length in which anything can happen when acceleration's involved because you'd have to constantly recalculate as you go. You'd have to take into account that what's a metre or a second at the speed your traveling now won't be the same after you accelerate. I think we all know that's true in special relativity and I don't see how it works any differently with gravity.
 
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