The Requirement of integer orbitals

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    Integer Orbitals
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the nature of electron orbitals in atoms, specifically questioning why orbitals are restricted to integer values and whether fractional orbitals could exist. The scope includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics and the mathematical foundations of orbital shapes and probabilities.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why orbitals cannot take on fractional values between integer quantum numbers, suggesting a lack of understanding of the underlying principles.
  • Another participant explains that solving the angular part of the Schrödinger equation under certain boundary conditions necessitates integer values for orbitals.
  • A different viewpoint emphasizes that orbitals are defined by their radial quantum number, which is always an integer, and notes that while probabilities may overlap, the states remain distinct.
  • One participant asserts that in bounded systems where the potential energy exceeds the total energy, the eigenvalues must be integral.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the possibility of fractional orbitals, with some asserting the necessity of integer values based on mathematical principles, while others explore the implications of probabilities in quantum states. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the existence of fractional orbitals.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include assumptions about the applicability of boundary conditions and the specific definitions of quantum states. The discussion does not resolve the implications of overlapping probabilities between different orbitals.

Phyzwizz
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If there is a cloud of electrons around an atom than why can't there be orbitals between 1 and 2 or between 2 and 3. I know the probability of an electron being between certain nodes decreases as they approach them but why as the probabilities go away from the perfect orbital do they not become fractional orbitals? (just starting to learn this stuff)
 
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If you solve the angular part of the Schrödinger equation in the Coulomb potential (or for any spherically symmetric potential), you'll find that in order to satisfy boundary conditions at \theta=0 and \theta=\pi and \phi=0 and \phi=2\pi, you need to have "integer orbitals" (in your language).
 
Simply because there are no (fractional) integers! The orbitals are labeled by their radial quantum number, n, which is an integer. So while an electron in the n=1 orbital has a finite probability of being found at the most probable radius for an electron in the n=2 orbital, and vice versa, they are distinct quantum states.
 
Anytime you have a bounded system |U|>|E| the eigenvalues will be integral.
 

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