Thermodynamics: proof about free expansion

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A_B
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Homework Statement


prove that for a free expansion the following equality holds:

[tex]\left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right) _{U} = - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ T \left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T} \right)_{V} - P \right][/tex]

Homework Equations


thermodynamic potentials, maxwell equations etc.

The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried playing around with the equations a little, but didn't get anywhere. I thought that [itex]\left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right)_{U}[/itex] should be zero, because if the energy remains constant, so should the temperature.
 
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A_B said:
I thought that [itex]\left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right)_{U}[/itex] should be zero, because if the energy remains constant, so should the temperature.

Only for an ideal gas.

A good start to this problem would be to use the identity

[tex]\left(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y}\right)_z \left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}\right)_x \left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\right)_y=-1[/tex]

and get that constant U constraint out of there.
 
OK, this is what I got so far:

[tex] \begin{align*}<br /> <br /> \left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right)_{U} &= \left[ \left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right)_{U}<br /> \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T} \left( \frac{\partial U}{\partial T} \right)_{V} \right] / \left[ \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T} \left( \frac{\partial U}{\partial T} \right)_{V} \right]<br /> <br /> \\ &= -1 / \left[ \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T} C_{V} \right]<br /> <br /> \\ &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ \frac{1}{ \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T}} \right]<br /> <br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

am I on the right track?
 
ok, i finished the problem, it continues:

[tex] \begin{align*}<br /> &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ \frac{1}{ \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T}} \right]<br /> \\ &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ \left( \frac{\partial U}{\partial V} \right)_{T}\right]<br /> \\ &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ \left( \frac{ \partial Q}{\partial V} \right)_{T} + \left( \frac{ \partial W}{\partial V} \right)_{T} \right]<br /> \\ &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ T \left( \frac{ \partial S}{\partial V}\right)_{T} - P \left( \frac{ \partial V}{\partial V} \right)_{T} \right]<br /> \\ &= - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ T \left( \frac{\partial S}{\partial V} \right)_{T} - P \right]<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

Finally, using the maxwell relation [itex]\left( \frac{ \partial P}{\partial T} \right)_{V} = \left( \frac{ \partial S}{\partial V} \right)_{T}[/itex] we obtain the desired relation:

[tex] \left( \frac{\partial T}{\partial V} \right) _{U} = - \frac{1}{C_{V}} \left[ T \left(\frac{\partial P}{\partial T} \right)_{V} - P \right][/tex]


The things I'm still having some trouble with is first of all the identity
[tex] \left(\frac{\partial x}{\partial y}\right)_z \left(\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}\right)_x \left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\right)_y=-1[/tex]
Any reference about this?

Also , it seems very plausible that
[tex] \frac{1}{ \left( \frac{\partial V}{\partial U} \right)_{T}} = \frac{\partial U}{\partial V} \right)_{T}[/tex]
But I'm not 100% sure why this works.

These are both calculus questions i suppose, so they're in the wrong place here.


Thanks

Alex
 
These are definitely useful identities when manipulating partial derivatives. They're called the triple product rule and the inverse function rule, respectively, if you want to search for more information.