Time evolution of a particle in momentum space

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The discussion focuses on the time evolution of a wavefunction in momentum space, specifically using the equation for the wavefunction transformation. The participant derives the expression for the wavefunction in momentum space, ultimately arriving at an equation that incorporates the exponential factors related to momentum and time. There is a debate about the correct sign in the integrand of the Fourier transform, which could affect the final result. Clarifications are made regarding the potential sign errors in the derived equations, particularly concerning the terms involving \(k\) and \(k_0\). The conversation emphasizes the importance of careful attention to signs in quantum mechanics calculations.
Foracle
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Homework Statement
At time t=0, the wave function of a particle is
##\Psi(x,0)=(\frac{\alpha}{\pi})^{\frac{1}{4}}e^{ik_{0}x-ax^{2}/2}##
##\alpha## and ##k_{0}## are real constants

What is the wavefunction at time t in momentum space, ##\tilde{\Psi}(k,t)##?
Relevant Equations
##\tilde{\Psi}(k)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty}dxe^{ikx}\Psi(x)##

##U(t,t_{0})=e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar}\hat{H}t} = e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar}\frac{\hat{p^2}t}{2m}} ##
Since it asks for the time evolution of the wavefunction in the momentum space, I write : ##\tilde{\Psi}(k,t) = < p|U(t,t_{0})|\Psi> = < U^\dagger(t,t_{0})p|\Psi>##

Since ##U(t,t_{0})^\dagger = e^{\frac{i}{\hbar}\frac{\hat{p^2}t}{2m}}##, the above equation becomes
##\tilde{\Psi}(k,t) = e^{\frac{-i}{\hbar}\frac{p^2t}{2m}} < p|\Psi> = e^{\frac{-i}{\hbar}\frac{p^2t}{2m}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty}dxe^{ikx}\Psi(x)##

Evaluate this with ##\Psi(x)=(\frac{\alpha}{\pi})^{\frac{1}{4}}e^{ik_{0}x-ax^{2}/2}##, I end up getting :
##\tilde{\Psi}(k,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}(\frac{\alpha}{\pi})^{1/4}e^{-\frac{(k-k_{0})^2}{2a}}e^{\frac{-i}{\hbar}\frac{p^2t}{2m}}##

Since ##p=\hbar k##,
##\tilde{\Psi}(k,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}(\frac{\alpha}{\pi})^{1/4}e^{-\frac{(k-k_{0})^2}{2a}}e^{\frac{-i}{\hbar}\frac{\hbar^2k^2t}{2m}}##

Is this the right way to solve this problem?
 
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Your work looks good to me except for some sign issues.
Foracle said:
Relevant Equations:: ##\tilde{\Psi}(k)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty }^{\infty}dxe^{ikx}\Psi(x)##
Check to see if the factor of ##e^{ikx}## in the integrand should actually be ##e^{-ikx}##. With ##e^{-ikx}##, then I think your result for ##\tilde{\Psi}(k, t)## is correct. But, if you use your way of writing ##\tilde{\Psi}(k)##, then I believe you would get a result for ##\tilde{\Psi}(k, t)## with a factor of ##\large e^{-\frac{(k+k_0)^2}{2a}}## instead of ##\large e^{-\frac{(k-k_0)^2}{2a}}##.

(But maybe I'm the one who's getting the signs wrong. :oldsmile:)
 
I want to find the solution to the integral ##\theta = \int_0^{\theta}\frac{du}{\sqrt{(c-u^2 +2u^3)}}## I can see that ##\frac{d^2u}{d\theta^2} = A +Bu+Cu^2## is a Weierstrass elliptic function, which can be generated from ##\Large(\normalsize\frac{du}{d\theta}\Large)\normalsize^2 = c-u^2 +2u^3## (A = 0, B=-1, C=3) So does this make my integral an elliptic integral? I haven't been able to find a table of integrals anywhere which contains an integral of this form so I'm a bit stuck. TerryW

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