Torus, two graphs and their equivalency

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equivalency of two graphs defined on a two-dimensional torus, specifically f_1(t) and f_2(t). Both graphs intersect at the point (\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},b) when t=0. The equivalency is established if the derivatives of their coordinate functions are equal at this point, as defined by the equations of the manifold M. The participant seeks clarification on the behavior of the coordinate function and the concept of graph equivalency, indicating a lack of accessible resources on this specific topic.

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Homework Statement


Two graphs defined for a two dimensional torus:
f_1(t) = (\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(a\ +\ b\ sin\ t),\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(a\ +\ b\ sin\ t),b\ cos\ t),\<br /> t \in (-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})
f_2(t) = (a\ cos(t+\frac{\pi}{4}),a\ sin(t+\frac{\pi}{4}),b),\<br /> t \in (-\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4})

Then f_1(0)=f_2(0)=(\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},b)

Are the graphs equivalent at a point (\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}},b)?

Homework Equations


Graphs f1 and f2 on manifold M are equivalent at a point m (m is in an open group U), if for some chart fc(q1,...,qn): U -> Rn of manifold M
\frac{d}{dt}q^i(f_1(t))=\frac{d}{dt}q^i(f_2(t))\ |_{t=0}

I also know that q is a coordinate function:
q^i:=pr^i \circ f_c where the projection pr^i:R^n \rightarrow R, (x^1,...,x^n) \mapsto x^i

I'm also told that if q^i:=pr^i \circ f_c then f can be written as: f_c=(q^1,...,q^n)

The Attempt at a Solution


I can't actually give anything of my own to go with this. Last week I posted https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=159154 relating to this problem, but as anyone hasn't been able to comprehend my output, I'm hoping that someone could help me with the problem directly.

So the problem is I really don't understand the behaviour of the coordinate function in this, but I'll happily read any kind of suggestions (using the method mentioned in 2. or not) for solving the problem.
 
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No answers. It's not my intention to be impatient, however. Instead, I was wondering if this whole "equivalency of graphs" is not as widely known as I though. My friend majoring in math has never heard of it, and it was actually presented to me on a physics course (not that this is a proof of anything, but got me thinking).

I tried to search the internet using the relevant words as keywords, but could not find anything where this equivalency were the substantial part of the document. So possibly I don't know the correct terms to search with (as I'm very unfamiliar with English math vocabulary). Could anybody give me any hints on which kind of math material such a topic could be covered?
 
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