Total Energy in Schwarszchild Questions Answered

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of Killing vectors in General Relativity as presented in Sean Carroll's book. Specifically, it addresses how the equation K_\mu \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} = \text{constant} follows from the definition of a Killing vector, particularly for timelike and lightlike particles. The conversation also highlights the normalization of the affine parameter λ for lightlike particles, where p^\mu = \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda}. This normalization is justified by the arbitrary scaling of the affine parameter.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of General Relativity concepts, particularly Killing vectors.
  • Familiarity with the equations of motion for timelike and lightlike particles.
  • Knowledge of affine parameters and their role in geodesics.
  • Access to Sean Carroll's "Spacetime and Geometry" for reference to specific equations.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Killing vectors in General Relativity.
  • Learn about the normalization of affine parameters in the context of geodesics.
  • Examine the implications of lightlike particles in curved spacetime.
  • Review Sean Carroll's lecture notes, particularly page 140 and equation (5.43).
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Students and researchers in theoretical physics, particularly those focusing on General Relativity and the dynamics of particles in curved spacetime.

maverick280857
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Hi,

I am working through Carrol's book on General Relativity. On page 206, he makes the following statement:

Carroll said:
If K^\mu is a Killing vector, we know that

K_\mu \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} = \mbox{ constant }

How does this follow from the definition of a Killing vector?

He uses this equation to determine the total energy (equation 5.61).

Thanks in advance.

EDIT: This makes sense for a timelike particle for which,

p^\mu = m \frac{dx^\mu}{d\tau}

What about a lightlike particle?

EDIT 2: On page 207, he says that for a lightlike particle, it is convenient to normalize \lambda in such a way that p^\mu = \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} for a lightlike particle. How does one justify this?
 
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I don't have Carrolls book, but I think he explains this very well in his lecture notes. See page 140, equation (5.43) and the text around that equation.

maverick280857 said:
What about a lightlike particle?

EDIT 2: On page 207, he says that for a lightlike particle, it is convenient to normalize \lambda in such a way that p^\mu = \frac{dx^\mu}{d\lambda} for a lightlike particle. How does one justify this?

The same property holds for any geodesic.

The affine parameter is only defined up to some scaling factor \lambda \rightarrow a \lambda + b. The choice of a and b is arbitrary.
 

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