Traditional double Atwood's machine

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the mechanics of a traditional double Atwood's machine, specifically focusing on the accelerations of three particles involved. The key equation derived for the acceleration of mass m1 is a1 = g*(4*m2*m3 - m1*(m2+m3))/(4*m2*m3 + m1*(m2+m3)). Participants explore the implications of treating the second pulley system as a black box with mass m2+m3, ultimately concluding that this simplification is invalid due to differing accelerations of m2 and m3 and the dependency of tensions T1 and T2.

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  • Understanding of Newton's laws of motion
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  • Knowledge of acceleration and its calculation in physics
  • Basic grasp of conservation principles in mechanics
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rahuldandekar
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Ok, I can understand this problem, I have read it's solution, can see how it is arrived at... but I can't understand WHY it is true.

It's a traditional double Atwood's machine... have to find the accelerations of the three particles.

I can understand how they got the equations, for the second pulley, T1 = 2*T2. The force equations for the masses are straightforward too. The "conservation of string" equation is... a1 = -(a2 + a3)/2 which is... ok, I guess.

But, I have trouble understanding the solution. For, the acceleration of m1 is
a1 = g*(4*m2*m3 - m1*(m2+m3))/(4*m2*m3 + m1*(m2+m3)).

Now, What if I imagine the pulley 2 system as a black box, of mass m2+m3?

I'll get the equation for a1 as g*(m1 - (m2+m3))/(m1+m2+m3) .
So, why can't we imagine the second system as a black box?

There's some obvious reason here, I'm sure, but I just can't get it. :(
 

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You cannot replace the 2nd pulley system with a single mass equal to m2 + m3. For one thing, m2 and m3 have different accelerations, while your replacement mass would have only one.
 
Ok... thanks... I'm also thinking that maybe it's because T1 is determeined by T2...
 

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