Transformation of solutions of the Dirac equation

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Gene Naden
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I am working through "Lessons on Particle Physics." The link is https://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/0906/0906.1271v2.pdf. I am on page 21, equation (1.5.50), which is
##S(\Lambda)=1-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\Sigma^{\mu\nu}##.
I would like some motivation for this equation. I wonder what the ##\omega##'s are. When I derived the equations that came after, the ##\omega##'s dropped out. I get the general idea that this is the transformation of the solution of the equation, corresponding to a Lorentz transformation of the coordinates.
 
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Gene Naden said:
I am working through "Lessons on Particle Physics." The link is https://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/0906/0906.1271v2.pdf. I am on page 21, equation (1.5.50), which is
##S(\Lambda)=1-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\Sigma^{\mu\nu}##.
I would like some motivation for this equation. I wonder what the ##\omega##'s are. When I derived the equations that came after, the ##\omega##'s dropped out. I get the general idea that this is the transformation of the solution of the equation, corresponding to a Lorentz transformation of the coordinates.

[itex]\omega_{\mu \nu}[/itex] are just the parameters of the Lorentz transformation.

An infinitesimal change of coordinates from one inertial coordinate system to another (with the same origin) can be characterized by two 3-D vectors:

[itex]\vec{R}[/itex]: a rotation
[itex]\vec{B}[/itex]: a "boost" (change of velocity)

These 6 components can be combined into a single antisymmetric tensor [itex]\omega_{\mu \nu}[/itex] as follows:

  1. [itex]\omega_{0j} = B_j[/itex]
  2. [itex]\omega_{xy} = R_z[/itex]
  3. [itex]\omega_{yz} = R_x[/itex]
  4. [itex]\omega_{zx} = R_y[/itex]
(and then use [itex]\omega_{\mu \nu} = -\omega_{\nu \mu}[/itex] to get the other components)
 
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OK, thanks. So ##S(\Lambda)=1-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\Sigma^{\mu\nu}## is reasonable in that it reduces to unity if the ##\omega_{\mu\nu}=0##. And I suppose that the difference from unity is linear in ##\omega##. I am still vaguely unsatisfied about this equation but maybe the best thing into accept it for now and move forward.
 
Gene Naden said:
OK, thanks. So ##S(\Lambda)=1-\frac{i}{2}\omega_{\mu\nu}\Sigma^{\mu\nu}## is reasonable in that it reduces to unity if the ##\omega_{\mu\nu}=0##. And I suppose that the difference from unity is linear in ##\omega##.

No, this is an approximation that is useful when the ##\omega_\mu \nu## are very small.

The exact expression for ##S \left( \Lambda \right)## is given by (1.5.54). For any square matrix ##X##, the exponential ##e^X## is defined by the series
$$e^X = 1 + X + \frac{X^2}{2!} + \frac{X^3}{3!} + \dots$$
which is convergent for all ##X##.

Using this series expression for (1.5.54) shows that (1.5.50) is a two-term approximation to (1.5.54) that is "valid" for small ##\omega_\mu \nu##.

The relationship between ##S \left( \Lambda \right)## and ##\Sigma^{\mu\nu}## is that of a representation of the Lorentz Lie Group and the corresponding representation of the Lorentz Lie algebra (derivative at the identity).
 
Thank you; the authors go on to develop the exponential for rotations and boosts.