Invariance of Dirac Lagrangian

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the invariance of the Dirac Lagrangian, specifically focusing on the term involving the partial derivative and its transformation properties under Lorentz transformations. Participants are exploring theoretical aspects related to particle physics, particularly in the context of the Dirac equation and its implications in relativistic quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant is seeking clarification on how to prove the invariance of the term involving the partial derivative in the Dirac Lagrangian, specifically questioning the transformation properties of the term proportional to ##\psi \bar \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu \psi##.
  • Another participant mentions the transformation of partial derivatives under Lorentz transformations, indicating that ##\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}## is covariant and ##\frac{\partial}{\partial x_\mu}## is contravariant.
  • There is a discussion about the appropriate LaTeX code for rendering ##\psi \bar##, with one participant providing the correct code as \bar\psi.
  • A later reply suggests that any quantity with Lorentz indices summed over is invariant under Lorentz transformations, drawing a parallel to invariance in mechanics with vector dot products.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants are exploring different aspects of the invariance of the Dirac Lagrangian, with some agreement on the transformation properties of partial derivatives. However, the discussion remains unresolved regarding the specific proof of invariance for the term involving the partial derivative.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully established the assumptions or definitions related to the invariance of the Dirac Lagrangian, and there are unresolved mathematical steps regarding the transformation of partial derivatives.

Gene Naden
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I am working through the first chapter of Lessons on Particle Physics by Luis Anchordoqui and Francis Halzen. The link is https://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/0906/0906.1271v2.pdf

I am on page 22. Equation 1.5.61:
##L_{Dirac}=\psi \bar ( i\gamma^\mu \partial_\mu-m)\psi##
where ##\psi bar = \psi^\dagger \gamma^0##

The authors state that this is invariant. I already proved the invariance of the mass term, but I don't see how to prove the invariance of the term involving ##\partial_\mu##.

The authors seem to feel that the invariance of (1.5.61) follows directly from the transformation properties of ##\psi \bar \gamma^\mu \psi##, which are:

##\psi \bar \prime \gamma^\mu \psi \prime = \Lambda^\mu_{\phantom \alpha} \psi \bar \gamma^\alpha \psi##

My question is how do I see the invariance of ##L_{Dirac}##; how to see the invariance of the first term, which is proportional to ##\psi bar \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu \psi##?

A related question: how to render ##\psi bar## in Tex. When I use \bar or \overline, the bar ends up too far to the right.
 
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Are you aware of how partial derivatives transform under Lorentz transformations?

Also, the appropriate ##\LaTeX## code for ##\bar\psi## is \bar\psi.
 
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Thank you, when I get home I will look at the transformation of partial derivatives.
 
So let's see, ##\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}## is covariant and ##\frac{\partial}{\partial x_\mu}## is contravariant, right?

So ##\frac{\partial}{\partial x\prime ^\mu}=\Lambda^\sigma_{\nu} \frac{\partial}{\partial x^\sigma}##

I don't know how to push the ##\nu## out to the second position...
 
In general, any quantity that has its Lorentz-indices summed over is invariant under Lorentz transformations... (I suppose that's the invariance you are asking about, and not that of gauge symmetries)... That is all quantities written as minkowski products are invariant under Lorentz transfs, in the same way the quantities (in e.g. mechanics) that are written as vector dot procuts are invariant under Euclidean transfs.
 
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