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I Transmission coefficient limit

  1. Mar 6, 2016 #1
    I've attached the equation for the transmission coefficient of a particle going through a potential barrier and E < V. I was simply wondering in the limit V --> E, why does T --> 0 (i.e. the V-E term --> 0 and thus the denominator would approach infinity, making T --> 0)? Shouldn't it be approaching 1?
     

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  3. Mar 7, 2016 #2

    Samy_A

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    There is also the ##sinh²(k_1 a)## to take into account, since ##V_0 \rightarrow E## implies ##k_1 \rightarrow 0##.

    Purely mathematically, you will get as limit ##1+\frac{mEa²}{2 {\hbar}^2}## in the denominator.
    (Physically maybe ##E \rightarrow V_0## makes more sense, so in the limit, replace ##E## by ##V_0##.)
     
    Last edited: Mar 7, 2016
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