Trig integrating with absolute values:

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the integral \(\int_0 ^\pi \sqrt{1-\sin^2 x} dx\), which relates to trigonometric functions and absolute values. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the treatment of the cosine function, particularly its sign change over the interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants suggest rewriting the integral in terms of the absolute value of cosine, noting the need to identify where \(\cos(x) = 0\) within the interval. Others discuss splitting the integral into two parts to handle the sign change of the cosine function.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different interpretations of the integral, particularly regarding the implications of the sign of the cosine function. There is acknowledgment of the area under the curve being 2, but also a recognition that the integral represents signed area, leading to further discussion on how to properly evaluate it.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the original poster's expectation of the answer being 2, despite consistently obtaining 0 in their attempts. This highlights a potential misunderstanding of the integral's properties and the treatment of absolute values in the context of integration.

Zeth
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Homework Statement


\int_0 ^\pi \sqrt{1-\sin^2 x} dx


Homework Equations



1 - \sin^2 x = \cos^2 x

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't know how to treat this since cos changes sign half way across the integral. I know the answer should be 2 but I keep getting 0 every which way I try.
 
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\int_0 ^\pi \sqrt{1-\sin^2 x} dx= \int_0 ^\pi |{\cos (x)}| dx

So you find where the 0= \cos (x) on the interval (0,\pi) and then integrate separately.

i.e, \int_0 ^\pi |{\cos (x)}| dx = \int_0 ^{\frac{\pi}{2} }\cos (x) dx - \int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^\pi \cos (x) dx
 
Last edited:
You can split the integral over the two intervals, can't you?
 
Zeth said:
I know the answer should be 2 but I keep getting 0 every which way I try.

Are you sure :)? Certainly the area is 2, but the integral gives you the Signed area. As neutrino said, splitting the integral into 2 gives the area :), as long as you take the absolute value of the negative value you will get from the integral between pi/2 and pi.
 

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