Trouble Understanding the Fourier Integral

  • Thread starter Thread starter ColdFusion85
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Fourier Integral
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the Fourier Integral Formula, specifically the integration of functions defined over certain intervals. Participants are exploring how to correctly apply the formula with different functions and the implications of variable substitution in integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning how to interpret the function f(x) in the context of the Fourier Integral, particularly the role of the variable ξ and how it relates to the integration limits and the function's definition.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications regarding the use of dummy variables in integrals and the nature of the function f(x). There is an acknowledgment of confusion that has been addressed, leading to a better understanding of the notation and its application.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of specific function definitions and integration limits, which are critical to the discussion but not fully resolved. The original poster's confusion stems from the interpretation of these definitions in the context of the Fourier Integral.

ColdFusion85
Messages
141
Reaction score
0
[SOLVED] Trouble Understanding the Fourier Integral

I am having a bit of trouble understanding how to use the Fourier Integral Formula.

The integral is [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} [A_{\omega}cos(\omega x) + B_{\omega}sin(\omega x)]d\omega[/tex]

Where,

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\xi)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex]
and
[tex]B_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\xi)sin(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex]

The example in the book doesn't help because f(x) is 1 for -1<=x<=1, and 0 for |x|>1. This doesn't clear up my confusion as to what the integral is supposed to look like with [tex]f(\xi)[/tex] inserted. What is [tex]f(\xi)[/tex]? Is it the function given, f(x)? Like if I had f(x) = sin(x) on [-2, 2], would A_w look like:

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex],

with sin(x) being treated as a constant that can be brought outside the integral, or am I supposed to make A_w be

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega x)dx[/tex]?

This is where I am confused.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
ColdFusion85 said:
I am having a bit of trouble understanding how to use the Fourier Integral Formula.

The integral is [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} [A_{\omega}cos(\omega x) + B_{\omega}sin(\omega x)]d\omega[/tex]

Where,

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\xi)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex]
and
[tex]B_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\xi)sin(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex]

The example in the book doesn't help because f(x) is 1 for -1<=x<=1, and 0 for |x|>1. This doesn't clear up my confusion as to what the integral is supposed to look like with [tex]f(\xi)[/tex] inserted. What is [tex]f(\xi)[/tex]? Is it the function given, f(x)? Like if I had f(x) = sin(x) on [-2, 2], would A_w look like:

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex],

with sin(x) being treated as a constant that can be brought outside the integral, or am I supposed to make A_w be

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega x)dx[/tex]?

This is where I am confused.

Your book gives: f(x) = 1 for values between -1 and 1. Let's just say you wanted to integrate this function:

eg. [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)dx[/tex]
This integral would reduce to: [tex]\int_{-1}^{1}dx[/tex] since it is zero outside of x=-1 and x=1 and is unity otherwise.

Note: You could also integrate this function as:
[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(\xi)d\xi[/tex]
and you would get the same thing.

The [itex]\xi[/itex] is a dummy variable.

For example, imagine I wanted to define a quantity that was the area of an arbitrary rectangle. Let's call this number [tex]R_{AB}[/tex] where A and B are the lengths of the rectangle respectively.

Well I could simply define [tex]R_{AB} = R \times B[/tex] or I could also write it as:

[tex]R_{AB} = \int_0^A \int_0^B d\xi_1 d\xi_2[/tex] Does that make sense? Its kinda like a loop.
 
Last edited:
I don't think I fully answered your question:

If you were to integrate:

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\xi)cos(\omega \xi) d\xi[/tex]

Lets let f(x) = 1 for x= 0 to 1 and f(x)=0 otherwise. Thus, your integral would become:

[tex]A = \int_{a}^{b} (1)cos(\omega \xi) d\xi[/tex]
[tex]A = \frac{\sin b \omega }{\omega }-\frac{\sin a \omega }{\omega}[/tex]
 
ColdFusion85 said:
What is [tex]f(\xi)[/tex]? Is it the function given, f(x)? Like if I had f(x) = sin(x) on [-2, 2], would A_w look like:

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex],

with sin(x) being treated as a constant that can be brought outside the integral, or am I supposed to make A_w be

[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(x)cos(\omega x)dx[/tex]?

This is where I am confused.

Apparently you are confused over basic definitions. The notation [itex]f(\xi)[/itex] refers to the value that the function f takes when you substitute [itex]x = \xi[/itex], just like f(0) means: the value of f in x = 0, and f(12.4872) means: the value of f in x = 12.8472.
So if you put that into the formula you gave, you get
[tex]A_{\omega} = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-2}^{2} sin(\xi)cos(\omega\xi)d\xi[/tex].
 
Yeah that's what I was having trouble understanding. Pretty simple actually, but it was late at night and my brain wasn't working. I don't know why I didn't see that in the first place. Thanks.
 

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K