Trouble with Integrating (1/x^2)*sec(1/x)*tan(1/x)dx Using u-Substitution

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function (1/x^2)*sec(1/x)*tan(1/x)dx using u-substitution, a topic within calculus. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the proper substitution and transformation of variables in the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply u-substitution by letting u = (1/x) and questions why (1/x^2) cannot be expressed as u^2 in the integral. Other participants discuss the derivatives involved and the appropriateness of substitutions, with some exploring different integrals to clarify the concept.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the mechanics of u-substitution and its application. There is a mix of interpretations regarding the substitution process, and some participants are attempting to clarify the relationship between u and the integral's components.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the transformation of variables and the derivatives involved in the u-substitution process. Participants are also referencing different integrals to illustrate their points, indicating a broader exploration of the topic.

fiziksfun
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So this is my first year of calculus and we're doing integrals using u-substitution

I'm having trouble with this integral:

integral of (1/x^2)*sec(1/x)*tan(1/x)dx

i let u=(1/x)
so du=(1/x^2)dx
so du(x^2)=dx

If I do this, the integral works out perfectly since the x^2 cancel out

so it equals sec(u) + C

HOWEVER, my question is
if i let u = (1/x)

why don't i replace the (1/x^2) (in the beginning of the integral) with u^2

CAN SOMEONE HELP ME??
 
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First of all, the derivative of [tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex] is not [tex]\frac{1}{x^2}[/tex]


Second of all, if [tex]u^2 = \frac{1}{x^2}[/tex]


then [tex]2udu = \frac{-2}{x^3}dx[/tex]


And you haven't made anything simpler for yourself.
 
the derivative of 1/x is -1/x^2 correct? sorrrybut if i were to do a u substitution like

integral of tan^4(x)*sec^2(x)

and i let u=tan x
then du*sec^2x=dxand that leads to the integral of u^4, correct? I'm confused
 
I don't follow. The derivative of u with respect to x is du / dx and the derivative of tan x is (secx)^2. so du / dx = (secx)^2.
 
right. so dx = du / (secx)^2 so
if i substitute that back into the original integral the (secx)^2 cancel out.
is the clearer?
 
But you can't let u = tan(x) because there is no tan(x) in the integral. There's a tan(1/x).
 
okk new problem, just to show what I am trying to say
lets take this integral
http://archives.math.utk.edu/visual.calculus/4/substitutions.1/int1-2.gif

the solution is
http://archives.math.utk.edu/visual.calculus/4/substitutions.1/sint1-2.gif

we let u=cosx

when we substitute it back into the original integral we have u^3

that's what confuses me. why can i do u^3 there and not
u^2 in the my original integral

does that make sense??
 
The difference is that you are saying "let u^2 = some function, whereas in this question, we let u = some function, and when you substitute u back into the integral, it just happens to become u^3.

What you want to do is let u = some function so that du = (some function that's already inside the integral)dx. This simplifies things in terms of u and du with no X's.
 

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