Two-Point Boundary Value Problem

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Roni1985
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Homework Statement



y''+[tex]\lambda[/tex]y=0
y'(0)=0
y'(pi)=0

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



What's puzzling me is the case when we check if the eigenvalue is zero.
y''=0
y'=C1
y=C1x+C2

Now when I check the first boundary value I get C1=0
now How do I check the second one ? with the pi...
It doesn't make sense plugging into the first derivative again because I have no x value (only a constant).
The answers show this:lambda=0 is an eigenvalue and the general solution is y0(x)=1

How did they get this ?

Thanks.
 
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lanedance said:
y'=C1
y'(0)=0, y'(pi)=0 --> C1 = 0
so
y=C2, constant, which up to a scalar multiple is the same as 1

Hello,


I didn't really understand your last statement.
the constant is the scalar multiple of 1 ?
I think I'm missing something...
 
whenever you find it solution to a DE it is only determined up to a scalar multiple

in this case any constant satisfies the DE & bc's
 
lanedance said:
whenever you find it solution to a DE it is only determined up to a scalar multiple

in this case any constant satisfies the DE & bc's

Oh, right...
but why did they choose
Yo(x)=1
an arbitrary choice ?

thanks.