Understanding Cauchy Sequences in Banach Spaces

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding Cauchy sequences within the context of Banach spaces, specifically focusing on the properties of sequences of functions and their derivatives. The original poster is attempting to prove that a Cauchy sequence converges in a complete normed space.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the properties of Cauchy sequences and the relationships between the sequences of functions and their derivatives. Questions arise regarding the correctness of assumptions and the steps needed to prove convergence.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the problem, suggesting that the original poster consider the relationship between the derivatives and the functions themselves. There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and implications of Cauchy sequences in this context, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of proving convergence and the conditions under which a function defined by a Cauchy sequence can be shown to belong to the Banach space. There are indications of confusion regarding the application of derivative properties and the necessary steps to establish the required results.

dirk_mec1
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Homework Statement


http://img394.imageshack.us/img394/5994/67110701dt0.png

Homework Equations



A banach space is a complete normed space which means that every Cauchy sequence converges.

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm stuck at exercise (c).

Suppose [tex](f_n)_n[/tex] is a Cauchy sequence in E. Then

[tex]|f_n-f_m| < \epsilon\ \forall\ n,m \leq N[/tex]

so

[tex]|f'_n - f'_m| \leq |f'_n - f'_m|_{\infty} < \epsilon[/tex]Am I going in the right direction?
 
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You have that backwards. ||fn-fm||_E<epsilon implies ||f'n-f'm||_infinity<epsilon. Can you use the fact the difference in derivatives of fn and fm is small to prove the difference between fn and fm is small? Hence that fn(x) is a cauchy sequence for each x?
 
Dick said:
You have that backwards. ||fn-fm||_E<epsilon implies ||f'n-f'm||_infinity<epsilon.
Really? I don't see why this is so.

Can you use the fact the difference in derivatives of fn and fm is small to prove the difference between fn and fm is small? Hence that fn(x) is a cauchy sequence for each x?
But what good will that do?



So here is the interpretation of the assignment in my eyes:

Given a Cauchy sequence [tex](f_n)_n \in\ E[/tex] prove that [tex]||f_n-f||_E \rightarrow 0[/tex] and that f is in E.

So we have:

[tex]||f'_n -f'_m||_{\infty} < \epsilon\ \forall m,n \geq N[/tex]

and we want: [tex]||f'_n -f'||_{\infty} \rightarrow 0\ \forall n \geq N[/tex]

Is this correct?
 
Yes, that's it. Show f exists and has bounded derivative.
 
I'm sorry Dick, I have have been thinking about this but I can't seem to get f in E and converging.

Your posts imply that I should prove that f_n is a Cauchy sequence but what do I get from that? You also mention to use the deratives to prove that f_n is Cauchy: do you mean that I should use the definition of the derative?
 
You know there is a limiting function f', since f'_n(x) is a cauchy sequence in R for every x. So that sequence has a limit, define f'(x) to be that limit. f' is also continuous since it's a uniform limit of continuous functions. Once you have f' just define f to be the integral from 0 to x of f'(t)dt.
 

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