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saipathudut said:Your quote, "All inertial frames agree on the spaciotemporal distance between any two points" is correct. Your question, therefore doesn't make sense, "how come the spaciotemporal distance between any two points p and q will disagree?" I don't know why you are asking that."
George sir, please pardon me, unknowingly i just retyped the same sentence, really very very sorry sir.
My question is: In all inertial frames, the temporal distance between p and q (time dilation) and on the spatial distance (length contraction) will vary (between any two observers am i right sir?), which is understood sir, but how come the spaciotemporal distance between any two points in all inertial frames agree?
They agree because of the unique geometry of 4D spacetime (which the Lorentz Transformation reveals). Think about a group of right triangles, all sharing a common hypotenuse, but each of which has different lengths for the other two sides. The square of the distance between the two ends of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides for each and every one of the triangles, by virtue of the Pythagorean theorem. The (distance) interval between events in 4D spacetime is analogous to the hypotenuse of the triangles, and the distance and time intervals for the events, as reckoned from various frames of reference, is analogous to the other two sides of the triangles. In many respects, the relativistic relationship is the 4D spacetime version of the Phthagorean theorem, albeit with a minus sign in the equation for the time "direction."