Doc Al said:
I would think that velocity is always a relation, even pre-SR.
Assuming I have this right: In a Newtonian context, there is a
K0 coordinate frame with respect to which every other inertial frame is in motion, and a
v0 "really" at rest. SR expressly denies any such concepts. This is precisely the innovation of Relativity: That no object can, in and of itself, be said to be "in motion" or "at rest."
Doc Al said:
In any case, the statement would be that no material object (including you) can exceed the speed of light with respect to any inertial frame.
So, then, if we could apply a simultaenous acceleration to every object in the universe such that every object was accelerated by .7c, then we have "upped the ante", and are now at liberty to accelerate any
one object in the universe by (say) .4c relative to the rest of the universe, and this would be a legitimate velocity, even thought it is 1.1c WRT our original frame of reference? Or, perhaps, we could accelerate every object in the universe by .5c three times in a row. Now the entire universe is moving at 1.5c WRT the original condition, but there has been no contemporaneous change in relative velocity for any object in the universe. If such a process took place over a few billion years, who would be the wiser?
And another question comes to mind: Are we quite sure that no two objects in the entire universe have an aggregate relative velocity greater than c?
A third consideration: Imagine an empty, closed universe in which exists only a spacecraft with an impulse engine (
http://chaos.fullerton.edu/~jimw/staif2000.pdf). The impulse engine is running, and has been running for an immeasurable period of time. The relative velocity of the craft is always 0, and yet the craft is experiencing a continuous acceleration from the impulse engine. (Or is it? In any case, energy is being expended, force is being applied, so one would expect that work was being performed). This is the conclusion that we reach if we say that the speed-of-light limitation applies only to an object's velocity
relative to any other inertial frame.
BUT, as soon as the spacecraft jettisons
one pop can, the rules change, and the days of acceleration are numbered. Right?
So then, I don't
think this is the right answer. But maybe someone can clear all this up for me.
Still puzzled.
