Understanding the Math Behind Homework Equations

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The discussion centers on understanding the Hamiltonian density equation and the derivation of its partial derivative with respect to the field variable φ. Participants clarify that the negative sign in the derivative arises from the application of vector identities and the properties of scalar fields. It is noted that the term involving π² vanishes when taking the derivative since it does not depend on φ. Additionally, the first term in the Hamiltonian density can be ignored due to its behavior at infinity, which leads to a zero contribution upon integration. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the importance of boundary conditions and integration techniques in solving these equations.
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Homework Statement



This is not really a problem but I was going over my lecture notes and I see \mathscr{H}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\pi^{2} + \vec{\nabla}\phi \cdot \vec{\nabla}\phi + m^{2}\phi^{2}\right) and \frac{\partial\mathscr{H}}{\partial\phi} = -\nabla^{2}\phi + m^{2}\phi

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I would think that \frac{\partial\mathscr{H}}{\partial\phi} = \nabla^{2}\phi + m^{2}\phi. But I don't know where the minus sign is coming from.
 
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I just found a vector identity \vec{\nabla}\phi\cdot\vec{\nabla}\phi = \vec{\nabla}\cdot\left(\phi\vec{\nabla}\phi\right) - \phi\vec{\nabla}^{2}\phi. I now see how the result follow.

EDIT: I'm confused again. will the phi derivative of the first term vanish?
 
If by "the first term" you mean the \pi^2 term, then yes, the \phi derivative will kill that term; reason being \phi doesn't appear in that term, only its time derivative.

Edit: Sorry, I understand what you meant by "first term" now. The first term vanishes at infinity so you can ignore it.
 
Last edited:
The 3-divergence in the Hamiltonian density (i.e. the first term in the RHS of the equality in post #2) can be discarded, since by integration of full space gives 0, because scalar fields are normally taken from the Schwartz space of test functions.
 
dextercioby said:
The 3-divergence in the Hamiltonian density (i.e. the first term in the RHS of the equality in post #2) can be discarded, since by integration of full space gives 0, because scalar fields are normally taken from the Schwartz space of test functions.

Sonny Liston said:
If by "the first term" you mean the \pi^2 term, then yes, the \phi derivative will kill that term; reason being \phi doesn't appear in that term, only its time derivative.

Edit: Sorry, I understand what you meant by "first term" now. The first term vanishes at infinity so you can ignore it.
That makes sense. I also realized that it can be integrated by parts using the same reasoning of vanishing at the boundaries. Thanks!
 

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