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The discussion revolves around proving the multiplicative identity in the context of ring theory, specifically addressing the equation 1_R = 1_R · 1_R. Participants explore the implications of this identity within the framework of nontrivial homomorphisms and the properties of rings.
The discussion is active, with participants examining different approaches and clarifying assumptions. There is recognition of the need to consider the properties of nontrivial homomorphisms, and some participants express agreement on the correctness of certain steps in the proof. However, no explicit consensus has been reached on the overall approach.
Participants note the importance of understanding the definitions and properties of rings and homomorphisms, as well as the implications of zero divisors in their reasoning. The discussion reflects a careful consideration of the assumptions necessary for the proof.
quasar987 said:You cannot "cancel" f(x) because in a ring, elements do not in general have multiplicative inverses.
But consider the following. Since f is nontrivial, there exists x in R such that f(x) [itex]\neq[/itex]0. Then f(x)=f(x)f(1) and substracting f(x), we get 0=f(x)(1-f(1)).
And now consider the two possible cases: 1-f(1)=0 and 1-f(1)[itex]\neq[/itex]0.
hkhk said:f(1R)= f(1R)f(1R)
so
f(1R)- 1s.f(1R) = 0
but when you write this are you not already assuming that f(1R) = 1s which is what we are trying to prove
hkhk said:yes but this proof does not use the given property that it is a nontrivial homomorphism
hkhk said:yes but this proof does not use the given property that it is a nontrivial homomorphism,
there is some x in R for f(x) /= 0s
i feel like this is how we should start
f(x)1s= f(x) = f (x1R)= f(x)f(1R)
f(x) =f(x)f(1R)
f(x) - f(x)f(1R) =0
hkhk said:ok, thanks !.
so it is ok to start this proof by saying
consider 1R=1R.1R then,
(the steps in post 6 are correct)