toni
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I got this from my Economics lecture notes...
How come 1 to (n-1) can be split up into [(1 to infinity) minus (n to infinity)]?
What confuses me is the former one has (n-2) terms, but the latter one has only (n-1) terms...
And it doesn't make sense to me graphically...
How come 1 to (n-1) can be split up into [(1 to infinity) minus (n to infinity)]?
What confuses me is the former one has (n-2) terms, but the latter one has only (n-1) terms...
And it doesn't make sense to me graphically...