- #1

- 222

- 0

Let ##f: (X,d) → (Y,d')## a uniform continuous function, and let ##A, B \subseteq X## non-empty sets such that ##d(A,B)=0##. Prove that ##d'(f(A),f(B))=0##

I've been thinking this exercise but I don't have any idea where to or how to start, could someone give me a hint?