Uniform Convergence of a Sequence of Functions

In summary: Thus, we can say that ##x^2 + \frac{1}{n} > 0##. Additionally, ##\frac{1}{n} > 0## by the Archimedean property. In particular, ##\frac{1}{n} \leq 1## if ##n>1##. This leads to the fact that ##x^2 + \frac{1}{n} > x^2##. If we take the square root of both sides, we obtain ##\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} > |x|##. So, we can say that ##|x| - \sqrt{x^2 +
  • #1
BrainHurts
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0

Homework Statement



Define

[itex]f_n : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} [/itex] by

[itex]f_n(x) = \left( x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/itex]


Show that [itex]f_n(x) \rightarrow |x|[/itex] converges uniformly on compact subsets of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex]

Show that the convergence is uniform in all of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Not quite good at these epsilon proofs, not sure if it needs to go that far but by the root law we have that

[itex]\lim_{ n\rightarrow \infty} \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2 + \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2} = |x|[/itex]. Now this shows that [itex]f_n [/itex] converges uniformly in some subset of [itex]\mathbb{R} [/itex] correct?
 
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  • #2
BrainHurts said:
[itex]\lim_{ n\rightarrow \infty} \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2 + \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2} = |x|[/itex]. Now this shows that [itex]f_n [/itex] converges uniformly in some subset of [itex]\mathbb{R} [/itex] correct?

Well, this only shows that the ##f_n## converge to ##|x|## pointswise. You need some extra argument to show or disprove uniform convergence.
 
  • #3
Well I suppose we should then go to the definition right.

Let [itex]\epsilon > 0 [/itex], I need to find the right [itex]N(\epsilon)[/itex] such that whenever [itex]n\geq N[/itex], we have that

[itex] \left| \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} - |x| \right| < \epsilon [/itex].

So I have a hard time messing with that

[itex]\left| \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} - |x| \right| [/itex]

any hints?
 
  • #4
Well, you need to prove

[tex]\textrm{sup}_x |f_n(x) - f(x)| \rightarrow 0[/tex]

So I would start by calculating this supremum. Maybe try the usual techniques of calculus?
 
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  • #5
Just to be clear, I need to find the

[itex] \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{sup}_{x \in \mathbb{R}} | f_n(x) - f(x) | [/itex] and show that as [itex]n \rightarrow \infty [/itex] then [itex]|f_n - f(x) | \rightarrow 0 [/itex]
 
  • #6
BrainHurts said:
Just to be clear, I need to find the

[itex] \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{sup}_{x \in \mathbb{R}} | f_n(x) - f(x) | [/itex]

You need to show this limit is ##0## by definition of uniform convergence. Do you see why.

and show that as [itex]n \rightarrow \infty then |f_n - f(x) | \rightarrow 0 [/itex]

No, that would just be pointswise convergence.
 
  • #7
Thanks, I think I'm going to have to think about this a little while
 
  • #8
Let me give you a hint: |x| = sqrt(x^2).
 
  • #9
BrainHurts said:

Homework Statement



Define

[itex]f_n : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} [/itex] by

[itex]f_n(x) = \left( x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/itex]


Show that [itex]f_n(x) \rightarrow |x|[/itex] converges uniformly on compact subsets of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex]

Show that the convergence is uniform in all of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Not quite good at these epsilon proofs, not sure if it needs to go that far but by the root law we have that

[itex]\lim_{ n\rightarrow \infty} \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2 + \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{1}{n}} = \sqrt{x^2} = |x|[/itex]. Now this shows that [itex]f_n [/itex] converges uniformly in some subset of [itex]\mathbb{R} [/itex] correct?

Use the hint, and show that convergence is uniform on an arbitrary compact subset [itex]S[/itex] of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex].

Note that every [itex]f_n[/itex] is continuous, and [itex]f[/itex] is continuous, so that [itex]g_n = f_n - f[/itex] is continuous, and that [itex]0 < g_{n+1}(x) < g_n(x)[/itex] for every [itex]x \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and every [itex]n \in \mathbb{N}[/itex].
 
  • #10
pasmith said:
Use the hint, and show that convergence is uniform on an arbitrary compact subset [itex]S[/itex] of [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex].

Note that every [itex]f_n[/itex] is continuous, and [itex]f[/itex] is continuous, so that [itex]g_n = f_n - f[/itex] is continuous, and that [itex]0 < g_{n+1}(x) < g_n(x)[/itex] for every [itex]x \in \mathbb{R}[/itex] and every [itex]n \in \mathbb{N}[/itex].

Sorry to bring up old news but I haven't really thought about this problem since, but anyway, pasmith all I'm getting from you is that [itex]g_n[/itex] is one-to-one.

[itex]g_n(x) = f_n(x) - f(x) = \left( x^2 - \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} - |x| = \left(x^2 - \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} - \sqrt{x}[/itex]

So

[itex] \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{sup}_{x \in \mathbb{R}} \left|f_n(x) - f(x) \right| = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{sup}_{x \in \mathbb{R}} \left| \left(x^2 - \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} - \sqrt{x} \right| [/itex]

I feel like I need to use the squeeze theorem or something. Am I supposed to use the following argument along the lines of

[itex] 0 < |g_{n+1}| < |g_n| [/itex] and as [itex]n \rightarrow \infty, |g_n| \rightarrow 0 [/itex]
 
  • #11
BrainHurts said:
Sorry to bring up old news but I haven't really thought about this problem since, but anyway, pasmith all I'm getting from you is that [itex]g_n[/itex] is one-to-one.

[itex]g_n(x) = f_n(x) - f(x) = \left( x^2 - \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} - |x| = \left(x^2 - \dfrac{1}{n} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} - \sqrt{x}[/itex]
I assume you intended that last ##\sqrt{x}## to be ##\sqrt{x^2}##, and also I assume you meant
$$\left(x^2 + \frac{1}{n}\right)^{1/2}$$
as in the problem statement.

Try using the fact that
$$\sqrt{a} - \sqrt{b} = \frac{a - b}{\sqrt{a} + \sqrt{b}}$$
assuming ##a## and ##b## are positive.
 
  • #12
mmmmmmm OK I'll do that! but yes that's what I meant
 
  • #13
Currently working on the same problem for my Intro Real Analysis II course at Rutgers University.

We know ## x^2 > 0 ## and ## \frac{1}{n} > 0 ## for all ##x \in \mathbb{R}## and for all ##n \in \mathbb{N}##, hence using the hint above we obtain $$ \left | \sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} - \sqrt{x^2} \right | = \left | \frac{1}{n (\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} + \sqrt{x^2})} \right | .$$

I think we need to split the reasoning for "##f_n## converges uniformly to ##f## on ##\mathbb{R}##" into two parts. Consider ##|x| \geq 1##, which implies ##x^2 \geq 1## and certainly ##x^2 + \frac{1}{n} \geq x^2## for natural number ##n##, hence ##\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} \geq \sqrt{1} = 1##. Moreover, ##\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} + \sqrt{x^2} \geq \sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} \geq 1##. Certainly ##n \geq N## gives ## \frac{1}{n} \leq \frac {1}{N}##, so combining these facts we have that $$ \frac{1}{n (\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} + \sqrt{x^2})} \leq \frac{1}{N}$$ for ##|x| > 1##. So setting ##\frac{1}{N} < \epsilon## gives $$\forall \epsilon > 0, \rm{choose}\ N \in \mathbb{N}\ \rm{such\ that}\ N > \frac{1}{\epsilon} \implies \\
\forall |x| > 1 \ \forall n \geq N\ \rm{we\ have}\ \left | \frac{1}{n (\sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} + \sqrt{x^2})} \right | \leq \frac{1}{n} \leq \frac{1}{N} < \epsilon. $$

To argue for ##|x|<1##, I am at a loss. Thoughts?

Attempt:
We know ##x^2 < 1##; however ##x^2 + \frac{1}{n} > x^2##.
 
Last edited:
  • #14
BrainHurts said:
Well I suppose we should then go to the definition right.

Let [itex]\epsilon > 0 [/itex], I need to find the right [itex]N(\epsilon)[/itex] such that whenever [itex]n\geq N[/itex], we have that

[itex] \left| \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} - |x| \right| < \epsilon [/itex].

So I have a hard time messing with that

[itex]\left| \sqrt{x^2 + \dfrac{1}{n}} - |x| \right| [/itex]

any hints?

Look at the graph of ##d_n(x) = \sqrt{x^2 + \frac{1}{n}} - |x| > 0##. For any interval ##I## that contains ##0##, what is the value of ##\sup_{x \in I} d_n(x)?##
 
  • #15
I don't remember, but in looking at your argument, why don't you include [\itex]|x|\geq 0[\itex]. Secondly, if you're going to do it for x<0, use the definition of |\cdot|, do the same thing, multiply both top and bottom by the conjugate and I think you have what you got. I hope this helps.
 

FAQ: Uniform Convergence of a Sequence of Functions

What is uniform convergence of a sequence of functions?

Uniform convergence of a sequence of functions is a type of convergence where the convergence is independent of the choice of the point in the domain. In other words, the convergence is uniform across the entire domain.

How is uniform convergence different from pointwise convergence?

In pointwise convergence, the convergence may vary at different points in the domain. However, in uniform convergence, the convergence is the same at all points in the domain.

What is the importance of uniform convergence in analysis?

Uniform convergence is important because it allows us to interchange the order of limit operations and integral operations, which is crucial in many mathematical proofs and applications.

Can a sequence of functions be uniformly convergent but not pointwise convergent?

Yes, it is possible for a sequence of functions to be uniformly convergent but not pointwise convergent. This means that the limit function is continuous, but the pointwise limit may not be the same as the limit function.

How can we determine if a sequence of functions is uniformly convergent?

To determine if a sequence of functions is uniformly convergent, we can use the Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence which states that the sequence is uniformly convergent if and only if for every positive number ε, there exists a positive integer N such that for all n > N, |fn(x) - f(x)| < ε for all x in the domain.

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