Use the properties of integrals to verify the inequality

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves verifying the inequality ∫(from pi/4 to pi/2)sin x/x ≤ 1/√2, focusing on the properties of integrals and the behavior of the function sin(x)/x over the specified interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the behavior of sin(x) and x within the interval, questioning whether sin(x)/x is increasing or decreasing. They explore the implications of the derivative of sin(x)/x and consider upper and lower bounds for the function.

Discussion Status

The discussion has progressed with participants examining the derivative of sin(x)/x and its implications for the inequality. Some participants have reached conclusions about the monotonicity of the function, leading to a potential verification of the inequality.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the constraints of the interval from pi/4 to pi/2 and the behavior of sin(x) and cos(x) within that range, which influences their reasoning about the derivative and the inequality.

mgaddafi86
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Homework Statement


∫(from pi/4 to pi/2)sin x/x ≤ 1/√2.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know the pi/4≤x≤pi/2 and so 1/√2 ≤ sin x ≤ 1 and i have tried to manipulate this to no end and it has annoyed the living daylights out of me
 
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mgaddafi86 said:

Homework Statement


∫(from pi/4 to pi/2)sin x/x ≤ 1/√2.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know the pi/4≤x≤pi/2 and so 1/√2 ≤ sin x ≤ 1 and i have tried to manipulate this to no end and it has annoyed the living daylights out of me

sin(x) is increasing on your interval, and so is x. What about sin(x)/x? Is this function increasing, decreasing, or neither? Can you find upper and lower bounds on the values of sin(x)/x on the given interval?
 
Yes I tried that,
the derivative of the function sin(x)/x would be: [x*cos(x)-sin(x)]/[x^2]

the denominator will be bigger than 0. sin(x) is between 1/sqrt(2) and 1 cos(x) is between 0 and 1/sqrt(2). If I was sure that x is smaller that on or equal to one then I could conclude that the derivative is negative because sinx >= cos x on the interval. But x is between pi/4(smaller than one) and pi/2(bigger than one)
 
YES NOW I GOT IT!

[x*cos(x)-sin(x)]/[x^2] will be bigger than 0 because:

if 0<=x<=pi/2 then x<=tan(x) so x<=sin(x)/cos(x) xcos(x)<=sin(x) xcos(x)-sin(x)<=0

thus the derivative is negative or 0 on the interval
so sin(x)/x <= sin(pi/4)/(pi/4) because it is decreasing

so ∫(from pi/4 to pi/2)sin x/x <= ∫(from pi/4 to pi/2)1/sqrt(2)*4/pi = 1/sqrt(2)*4/pi*(pi/2-pi/4)= 1/sqrt(2)
YEEEEEEEEEEEEE. I have been working on this stupid problem for 3 days.

Thank you for helping out.
 

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