- #1
Ianfinity
- 5
- 0
Use integration by parts to prove the reduction formula:
int(sec^n)x dx = (tan(x)*sec^(n-2)*x)/(n-1) + [(n-2)/(n-1)]int(sec^(n-2)*x dx
n /= 1 (n does not equal 1)
I used "int" in place of the integral sign.
This was a problem on the corresponding test from the cal A class I am from the past semester. I think there might be something like it on my test tomorrow, but I can't figure it out. Apologies if my formatting of the problem is confusing.
Thanks in advance.
int(sec^n)x dx = (tan(x)*sec^(n-2)*x)/(n-1) + [(n-2)/(n-1)]int(sec^(n-2)*x dx
n /= 1 (n does not equal 1)
I used "int" in place of the integral sign.
This was a problem on the corresponding test from the cal A class I am from the past semester. I think there might be something like it on my test tomorrow, but I can't figure it out. Apologies if my formatting of the problem is confusing.
Thanks in advance.