Use integration by parts to prove the reduction formula: int(sec^n)x dx = (tan(x)*sec^(n-2)*x)/(n-1) + [(n-2)/(n-1)]int(sec^(n-2)*x dx n /= 1 (n does not equal 1) I used "int" in place of the integral sign. This was a problem on the corresponding test from the cal A class I am from the past semester. I think there might be something like it on my test tomorrow, but I can't figure it out. Apologies if my formatting of the problem is confusing. Thanks in advance.