alqubaisi
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Homework Statement
The area element of a sphere in spherical coordinates is given as following
dA = r^2 \sin(\phi)\; d \theta \; d \phi
using the notation in the following figure:
However, while going through some E&M books I ran into the following notation
Surface \; Area = r^2 \; \int_{-1} ^1 d \cos(\phi) \; \int_0^{2 \pi}d \theta \; = 4 \pi r^2
My question is how can we replace \int_{0} ^\pi \sin(\phi) \; d \phi with \int_{-1} ^1 d \cos(\phi)
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